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Unit A3 · SolutionsUnit A3 · 解析

Work, Energy and Power · Solutions功、能量与功率 · 解析

Companion to the IB-Style Practice SetIB 风格练习题的解析配套

MEDIUM HARD Paper 1 Paper 1B Paper 2 HL ONLY

Syllabus A3.1 to A3.6考纲 A3.1 至 A3.6PHYSICS HL



PART I  ·  PAPER 1 STYLE第一部分  ·  第一卷风格Short structured · 30 marks短结构题 · 30 分

Worked Solutions详细解析

Q1MEDIUMPaper 1work at an angle + area under F-s graph斜向力做的功与 F-s 图面积[6 marks]

A crate is dragged $8.0\ \mathrm{m}$. (a) work done by a $120\ \mathrm{N}$ pull at $25^{\circ}$ above the horizontal; (b) work done by a force rising linearly $0 \to 30\ \mathrm{N}$ over $6.0\ \mathrm{m}$, from the area under the $F$-$s$ graph.箱子被拖动 $8.0\ \mathrm{m}$。(a) 与水平成 $25^{\circ}$ 的 $120\ \mathrm{N}$ 拉力做的功;(b) 力在 $6.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 内从 $0$ 线性增至 $30\ \mathrm{N}$ 时由 $F$-$s$ 图面积求做的功。

Answers:答案:  (a) $W \approx 870\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (b) $W = 90\ \mathrm{J}$

(a) Work done by the angled pull M1·A1·R1

Work is the scalar product of force and displacement: $W = Fs\cos\theta$, where $\theta$ is the angle between the force and the displacement. (M1)

$$ W = (120)(8.0)\cos 25^{\circ} = 960 \times 0.9063 \approx 870\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

Only the horizontal component $F\cos\theta$ lies along the displacement; the vertical component is perpendicular to the motion and does no work, so the full $120\ \mathrm{N}$ is not used. (R1)

(b) Work from the area under the graph M1·A1·A1

For a variable force the work is the area under the force-displacement graph. The graph is a straight line from $(0,\,0)$ to $(6.0,\,30)$, so the area is a triangle. (M1)

$$ W = \tfrac{1}{2} \times \text{base} \times \text{height} = \tfrac{1}{2}(6.0)(30). $$

(A1)

$$ W = 90\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

Insight. Two work formulae, two situations: $W = Fs\cos\theta$ is the constant-force special case, while the area under the $F$-$s$ graph handles any force, constant or not. The trap in (a) is using the launch angle wrongly, or multiplying by the full force; the trap in (b) is reaching for $W = Fs$ with the peak $30\ \mathrm{N}$, which doubles the true answer. A linearly rising force does exactly half the work that the same peak force would do if it acted the whole way.

(a) 斜向拉力做的功 M1·A1·R1

功是力与位移的标量积:$W = Fs\cos\theta$,其中 $\theta$ 为力与位移的夹角。(M1)

$$ W = (120)(8.0)\cos 25^{\circ} = 960 \times 0.9063 \approx 870\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

只有水平分量 $F\cos\theta$ 沿位移方向;竖直分量与运动垂直,不做功,故不直接用整个 $120\ \mathrm{N}$。(R1)

(b) 由图下面积求功 M1·A1·A1

对变力,功是力-位移图下的面积。该图是从 $(0,\,0)$ 到 $(6.0,\,30)$ 的直线,故面积为三角形。(M1)

$$ W = \tfrac{1}{2} \times \text{底} \times \text{高} = \tfrac{1}{2}(6.0)(30). $$

(A1)

$$ W = 90\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

要点。两个做功公式,两种情形:$W = Fs\cos\theta$ 是恒力的特例,而力-位移图下的面积适用于任意力,无论恒定与否。(a) 的陷阱是用错发射角,或乘以整个力;(b) 的陷阱是用峰值 $30\ \mathrm{N}$ 代入 $W = Fs$,会使真值翻倍。线性增大的力所做的功恰好是同一峰值力全程作用时的一半。
Q2MEDIUMPaper 1work-energy theorem (braking)动能定理(刹车)[5 marks]

A $1500\ \mathrm{kg}$ car at $20\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ brakes to rest under a constant friction force of $6000\ \mathrm{N}$. (a) state the work-energy theorem; (b) initial kinetic energy; (c) braking distance.一辆 $1500\ \mathrm{kg}$、以 $20\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ 行驶的汽车在 $6000\ \mathrm{N}$ 恒定摩擦力下刹车至停。(a) 陈述动能定理;(b) 初动能;(c) 刹车距离。

Answers:答案:  (a) net work $=$ change in $E_k$  ·  (b) $E_k = 3.0\times 10^{5}\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (c) $s = 50\ \mathrm{m}$

(a) The work-energy theorem B1

The net (total) work done on a body equals the change in its kinetic energy: $W_{\text{net}} = \Delta E_k$. (B1)

(b) Initial kinetic energy M1·A1

$E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$ with $m = 1500\ \mathrm{kg}$ and $v = 20\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$: (M1)

$$ E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(1500)(20)^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}(1500)(400) = 3.0\times 10^{5}\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) Braking distance M1·A1

Friction is the only force doing work; it removes all the kinetic energy: $F s = E_k$. (M1)

$$ s = \frac{E_k}{F} = \frac{3.0\times 10^{5}}{6000} = 50\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

Insight. The work-energy theorem turns a stopping-distance question into one line, with no need for suvat or acceleration. Because $E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2} \propto v^{2}$, the braking distance scales with the square of the speed: doubling the entry speed quadruples the distance. This is the physics that justifies lower speed limits, and the examiner credits the energy method just as fully as a kinematics route.

(a) 动能定理 B1

物体所受的合(总)功等于其动能的变化:$W_{\text{net}} = \Delta E_k$。(B1)

(b) 初动能 M1·A1

$E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$,$m = 1500\ \mathrm{kg}$,$v = 20\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$:(M1)

$$ E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(1500)(20)^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}(1500)(400) = 3.0\times 10^{5}\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) 刹车距离 M1·A1

摩擦力是唯一做功的力,它移走全部动能:$F s = E_k$。(M1)

$$ s = \frac{E_k}{F} = \frac{3.0\times 10^{5}}{6000} = 50\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

要点。动能定理把刹车距离问题化为一行,无需 suvat 或加速度。因 $E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2} \propto v^{2}$,刹车距离随速度平方变化:入射速度翻倍,距离变为四倍。这正是降低限速的物理依据,阅卷对能量法与运动学法给分相同。
Q3HARDPaper 1Hooke's law + elastic PE to KE胡克定律与弹性势能转动能[6 marks]

A spring extends $0.10\ \mathrm{m}$ under a $0.50\ \mathrm{kg}$ mass. (a) spring constant; (b) elastic PE at that extension; (c) launch speed of a $0.10\ \mathrm{kg}$ ball from the same spring compressed $0.20\ \mathrm{m}$.弹簧在 $0.50\ \mathrm{kg}$ 物体下伸长 $0.10\ \mathrm{m}$。(a) 劲度系数;(b) 该伸长量下的弹性势能;(c) 同一弹簧压缩 $0.20\ \mathrm{m}$ 时发射 $0.10\ \mathrm{kg}$ 小球的速率。

Answers:答案:  (a) $k \approx 49\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}$  ·  (b) $E_{\text{el}} \approx 0.25\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (c) $v \approx 4.4\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$

(a) Spring constant M1·A1

At equilibrium the spring force balances the weight: $kx = mg$. (M1)

$$ k = \frac{mg}{x} = \frac{(0.50)(9.81)}{0.10} = \frac{4.905}{0.10} \approx 49\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(b) Elastic potential energy M1·A1

$E_{\text{el}} = \tfrac{1}{2}kx^{2}$ with $x = 0.10\ \mathrm{m}$: (M1)

$$ E_{\text{el}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(49.05)(0.10)^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}(49.05)(0.010) \approx 0.25\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) Launch speed of the ball M1·A1

Stored elastic energy at $x = 0.20\ \mathrm{m}$ becomes kinetic energy: $\tfrac{1}{2}kx^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$. (M1)

$$ E_{\text{el}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(49.05)(0.20)^{2} = 0.981\ \mathrm{J}, \qquad v = \sqrt{\frac{2 E_{\text{el}}}{m}} = \sqrt{\frac{2(0.981)}{0.10}} = \sqrt{19.62} \approx 4.4\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

Insight. Elastic energy goes as the square of the extension, so quadrupling the displacement from $0.10$ to $0.20\ \mathrm{m}$ multiplies the stored energy by four. The horizontal launch is the clean case because gravitational PE does not change during release, so all the elastic energy converts to kinetic energy; an upward launch would require subtracting $mg\Delta h$. Watch the unit conversion of $x$ to metres before squaring, the single most common slip in spring problems.

(a) 劲度系数 M1·A1

平衡时弹簧力与重力相等:$kx = mg$。(M1)

$$ k = \frac{mg}{x} = \frac{(0.50)(9.81)}{0.10} = \frac{4.905}{0.10} \approx 49\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(b) 弹性势能 M1·A1

$E_{\text{el}} = \tfrac{1}{2}kx^{2}$,$x = 0.10\ \mathrm{m}$:(M1)

$$ E_{\text{el}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(49.05)(0.10)^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}(49.05)(0.010) \approx 0.25\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) 小球发射速率 M1·A1

$x = 0.20\ \mathrm{m}$ 处储存的弹性能转为动能:$\tfrac{1}{2}kx^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$。(M1)

$$ E_{\text{el}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(49.05)(0.20)^{2} = 0.981\ \mathrm{J}, \qquad v = \sqrt{\frac{2 E_{\text{el}}}{m}} = \sqrt{\frac{2(0.981)}{0.10}} = \sqrt{19.62} \approx 4.4\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

要点。弹性能随伸长量平方变化,故位移从 $0.10$ 增到 $0.20\ \mathrm{m}$(四倍)使储能变为四倍。水平发射是干净情形,因释放过程中重力势能不变,全部弹性能转为动能;向上发射则需减去 $mg\Delta h$。平方前务必把 $x$ 换算成米,这是弹簧题最常见的失误。
Q4HARDPaper 1power and efficiency of a hoist提升机的功率与效率[6 marks]

A motor raises a $250\ \mathrm{kg}$ load at constant $0.50\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$, drawing $1.8\ \mathrm{kW}$. (a) useful output power; (b) efficiency; (c) rate of energy dissipation and its form.电动机以恒定 $0.50\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ 吊起 $250\ \mathrm{kg}$ 负载,消耗 $1.8\ \mathrm{kW}$。(a) 有用输出功率;(b) 效率;(c) 能量耗散速率及其形式。

Answers:答案:  (a) $P_{\text{out}} \approx 1.2\ \mathrm{kW}$  ·  (b) $\eta \approx 68\%$  ·  (c) $\approx 0.57\ \mathrm{kW}$ as heat

(a) Useful output power M1·A1

At constant speed the lift force balances the weight, so $F = mg$; the useful power is $P = Fv = mgv$. (M1)

$$ P_{\text{out}} = (250)(9.81)(0.50) = 1226\ \mathrm{W} \approx 1.2\ \mathrm{kW}. $$

(A1)

(b) Efficiency M1·A1

$\eta = \dfrac{P_{\text{useful}}}{P_{\text{input}}}$ with $P_{\text{input}} = 1800\ \mathrm{W}$: (M1)

$$ \eta = \frac{1226}{1800} = 0.681 \approx 68\%. $$

(A1)

(c) Rate of energy dissipation M1·A1

The dissipated power is the input power minus the useful output: $1800 - 1226 = 574\ \mathrm{W}$. (M1)

This is about $0.57\ \mathrm{kW}$, dissipated mostly as thermal energy (heat) in the motor windings and bearings, with a little as sound. (A1)

Insight. The key step is recognising that "constant speed" forces the lift force to equal the weight, with zero net work going into kinetic energy. Efficiency is always a ratio of the same kind of quantity (power over power, or energy over energy) and must come out below $100\%$; a value above one is an immediate flag that the useful and input terms have been swapped. The wasted power is never destroyed, it simply leaves the system as heat and sound.

(a) 有用输出功率 M1·A1

匀速时提升力与重力平衡,故 $F = mg$;有用功率为 $P = Fv = mgv$。(M1)

$$ P_{\text{out}} = (250)(9.81)(0.50) = 1226\ \mathrm{W} \approx 1.2\ \mathrm{kW}. $$

(A1)

(b) 效率 M1·A1

$\eta = \dfrac{P_{\text{useful}}}{P_{\text{input}}}$,$P_{\text{input}} = 1800\ \mathrm{W}$:(M1)

$$ \eta = \frac{1226}{1800} = 0.681 \approx 68\%. $$

(A1)

(c) 能量耗散速率 M1·A1

耗散功率为输入功率减有用输出:$1800 - 1226 = 574\ \mathrm{W}$。(M1)

约为 $0.57\ \mathrm{kW}$,主要以热能(在电机绕组与轴承中)耗散,少量为声。(A1)

要点。关键一步是认识到"匀速"迫使提升力等于重力,没有净功转入动能。效率永远是同类量之比(功率比功率,或能量比能量),必小于 $100\%$;大于 1 立刻说明有用项与输入项被弄反。浪费的功率从未被消灭,只是以热和声离开系统。
Q5HARDPaper 1inelastic collision: energy bookkeeping非弹性碰撞的能量账目[7 marks]

Trolley A ($2.0\ \mathrm{kg}$, $4.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$) couples to stationary trolley B ($6.0\ \mathrm{kg}$). (a) conservation law and common velocity; (b) kinetic energy before, after, and lost; (c) elastic or inelastic, and where the energy went.小车 A($2.0\ \mathrm{kg}$,$4.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$)与静止的小车 B($6.0\ \mathrm{kg}$)连接。(a) 守恒定律与共同速度;(b) 碰前、碰后及损失的动能;(c) 弹性还是非弹性,能量去向。

Answers:答案:  (a) momentum; $v = 1.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$  ·  (b) $16\ \mathrm{J} \to 4.0\ \mathrm{J}$, lost $12\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (c) inelastic; to heat, sound, deformation

(a) Common velocity M1·M1·A1

With no external force, total momentum is conserved (this holds for every collision). (M1)

$$ m_1 u_1 = (m_1 + m_2)v \;\Rightarrow\; (2.0)(4.0) = (8.0)v. \quad (\text{M1}) $$ $$ v = \frac{8.0}{8.0} = 1.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(b) Kinetic energy lost M1·A1·A1

Before: only A moves. After: the $8.0\ \mathrm{kg}$ pair moves at $1.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$. (M1)

$$ E_k^{\text{before}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(2.0)(4.0)^{2} = 16\ \mathrm{J}, \qquad E_k^{\text{after}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(8.0)(1.0)^{2} = 4.0\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

$$ \Delta E_k = 16 - 4.0 = 12\ \mathrm{J}\ \text{lost}. $$

(A1)

(c) Type of collision B1

Kinetic energy is not conserved ($16 \to 4.0\ \mathrm{J}$), so the collision is inelastic; the missing $12\ \mathrm{J}$ becomes heat, sound, and permanent deformation of the coupling. (B1)

Insight. The discipline that earns full marks is to start every collision from momentum conservation and only test kinetic energy afterwards: momentum is conserved whether the collision is elastic or not, while kinetic energy is the diagnostic that classifies it. A perfectly inelastic collision (bodies sticking) loses the maximum kinetic energy allowed by momentum conservation, but never all of it, because the combined mass must keep moving to carry the surviving momentum.

(a) 共同速度 M1·M1·A1

无外力时总动量守恒(对每种碰撞都成立)。(M1)

$$ m_1 u_1 = (m_1 + m_2)v \;\Rightarrow\; (2.0)(4.0) = (8.0)v. \quad (\text{M1}) $$ $$ v = \frac{8.0}{8.0} = 1.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(b) 损失的动能 M1·A1·A1

碰前:仅 A 运动。碰后:$8.0\ \mathrm{kg}$ 的整体以 $1.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ 运动。(M1)

$$ E_k^{\text{before}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(2.0)(4.0)^{2} = 16\ \mathrm{J}, \qquad E_k^{\text{after}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(8.0)(1.0)^{2} = 4.0\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

$$ \Delta E_k = 16 - 4.0 = 12\ \mathrm{J}\ \text{损失}. $$

(A1)

(c) 碰撞类型 B1

动能不守恒($16 \to 4.0\ \mathrm{J}$),故为非弹性碰撞;缺失的 $12\ \mathrm{J}$ 转为热、声以及连接处的永久形变。(B1)

要点。得满分的纪律是:每次碰撞都先用动量守恒,之后再检验动能。无论弹性与否动量都守恒,而动能是用于分类的判据。完全非弹性碰撞(物体粘连)损失动量守恒允许的最大动能,但绝不损失全部,因为合并质量必须继续运动以携带余下的动量。
PART II  ·  PAPER 1B / DATA ANALYSIS第二部分  ·  第一卷 B / 数据分析Graphs · data · uncertainties · 22 marks图像 · 数据 · 不确定度 · 22 分

Worked Solutions详细解析

Q6HARDPaper 1BHooke's-law graph + uncertainty胡克定律图像与不确定度[10 marks]

$F$ vs $x$ data for a stretched spring. (a) state Hooke's law and why $F$ vs $x$ is linear through the origin; (b) gradient and spring constant; (c) elastic PE at $x = 0.40\ \mathrm{m}$ from the area; (d) percentage uncertainty in $F$ at $x = 0.40\ \mathrm{m}$ given $\pm 0.2\ \mathrm{N}$.拉伸弹簧的 $F$ 对 $x$ 数据。(a) 陈述胡克定律及 $F$ 对 $x$ 为过原点直线的原因;(b) 斜率与劲度系数;(c) 由面积求 $x = 0.40\ \mathrm{m}$ 时的弹性势能;(d) 给定 $\pm 0.2\ \mathrm{N}$ 时 $x = 0.40\ \mathrm{m}$ 处 $F$ 的百分比不确定度。

Answers:答案:  (a) $F = kx$, gradient $= k$  ·  (b) gradient $= 25\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}$  ·  (c) $E_{\text{el}} = 2.0\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (d) $2\%$

(a) Hooke's law and the straight line M1·A1·A1

Hooke's law: the force needed to stretch a spring is proportional to the extension, $F = kx$, while the spring is not overstretched. (M1)

This has the form $F = (\text{gradient})\times x$ with no intercept, so a plot of $F$ against $x$ is a straight line through the origin. (A1)

Comparing with $y = mx$, the gradient equals the spring constant $k$. (A1)

(b) Gradient and spring constant M1·A1·A1

Read the gradient from two well-separated points, $(0.10,\,2.5)$ and $(0.40,\,10.0)$: (M1)

$$ \text{gradient} = \frac{10.0 - 2.5}{0.40 - 0.10} = \frac{7.5}{0.30} = 25\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

Since the gradient is the spring constant, $k = 25\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}$. (A1)

(c) Elastic PE from the area M1·A1

The elastic PE is the area under the $F$-$x$ line up to $x = 0.40\ \mathrm{m}$, a triangle of height $F = 10.0\ \mathrm{N}$: (M1)

$$ E_{\text{el}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(0.40)(10.0) = 2.0\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1) (equivalently $\tfrac{1}{2}kx^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}(25)(0.40)^{2} = 2.0\ \mathrm{J}$.)

(d) Percentage uncertainty in $F$ M1·A1

At $x = 0.40\ \mathrm{m}$, $F = 10.0\ \mathrm{N}$ with absolute uncertainty $\pm 0.2\ \mathrm{N}$: (M1)

$$ \frac{0.2}{10.0}\times 100\% = 2\%. $$

(A1)

Insight. The area under a force-extension graph is the stored energy, which is why the triangle gives $\tfrac{1}{2}kx^{2}$ directly, a cleaner route than memorising the formula. The marker awards the gradient only when it is read from widely spaced points on the line, never from a single $(x, F)$ pair divided out, because the line averages random scatter. Percentage uncertainty falls as the reading grows, so the largest $x$ data point is the most precise, the opposite of the intuition that bigger means rougher.

(a) 胡克定律与直线 M1·A1·A1

胡克定律:在弹簧未被过度拉伸时,拉伸弹簧所需的力与伸长量成正比,$F = kx$。(M1)

此式形如 $F = (\text{斜率})\times x$,无截距,故 $F$ 对 $x$ 作图为过原点的直线。(A1)

与 $y = mx$ 比较,斜率等于劲度系数 $k$。(A1)

(b) 斜率与劲度系数 M1·A1·A1

用相距较远的两点读斜率,$(0.10,\,2.5)$ 与 $(0.40,\,10.0)$:(M1)

$$ \text{斜率} = \frac{10.0 - 2.5}{0.40 - 0.10} = \frac{7.5}{0.30} = 25\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

因斜率即劲度系数,$k = 25\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}$。(A1)

(c) 由面积求弹性势能 M1·A1

弹性势能是 $F$-$x$ 图线到 $x = 0.40\ \mathrm{m}$ 处下的面积,是高 $F = 10.0\ \mathrm{N}$ 的三角形:(M1)

$$ E_{\text{el}} = \tfrac{1}{2}(0.40)(10.0) = 2.0\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)(等价地 $\tfrac{1}{2}kx^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}(25)(0.40)^{2} = 2.0\ \mathrm{J}$。)

(d) $F$ 的百分比不确定度 M1·A1

$x = 0.40\ \mathrm{m}$ 处 $F = 10.0\ \mathrm{N}$,绝对不确定度 $\pm 0.2\ \mathrm{N}$:(M1)

$$ \frac{0.2}{10.0}\times 100\% = 2\%. $$

(A1)

要点。力-伸长图下的面积就是储存的能量,故三角形直接给出 $\tfrac{1}{2}kx^{2}$,比硬记公式更干净。只有从直线上相距较远的点读斜率才给分,绝不用单个 $(x, F)$ 相除,因为直线能平均随机散布。百分比不确定度随读数增大而减小,故最大 $x$ 处的数据点最精确,与"越大越粗糙"的直觉相反。
Q7HARDPaper 1BHL ONLYvariable force: area = integral of work变力:面积即功的积分[12 marks]

A $5.0\ \mathrm{kg}$ cart on a frictionless track is pushed by a force: $0 \to 40\ \mathrm{N}$ over $0$ to $4.0\ \mathrm{m}$, constant $40\ \mathrm{N}$ from $4.0$ to $8.0\ \mathrm{m}$, then $40 \to 0\ \mathrm{N}$ from $8.0$ to $10.0\ \mathrm{m}$, from rest. (a) why area $=$ work, with the integral; (b) work over first $4.0\ \mathrm{m}$; (c) total work over $10.0\ \mathrm{m}$; (d) final speed; (e) where acceleration is greatest.无摩擦轨道上 $5.0\ \mathrm{kg}$ 的小车受力推动:$0$ 至 $4.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 从 $0$ 增至 $40\ \mathrm{N}$,$4.0$ 至 $8.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 恒为 $40\ \mathrm{N}$,$8.0$ 至 $10.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 从 $40$ 减至 $0\ \mathrm{N}$,从静止开始。(a) 面积为何等于功及积分;(b) 前 $4.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 的功;(c) $10.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 的总功;(d) 末速率;(e) 加速度最大处。

Answers:答案:  (a) $W = \int F\,ds$  ·  (b) $80\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (c) $280\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (d) $v \approx 11\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$  ·  (e) $4.0 \le s \le 8.0\ \mathrm{m}$ (force largest)

(a) Why the area equals the work M1·A1

Over an infinitesimal displacement $ds$ the force is effectively constant and does work $dW = F\,ds$, which is the area of a thin strip under the graph. Summing the strips: (M1)

$$ W = \int_{0}^{10} F(s)\,ds = \text{area under the } F\text{-}s \text{ graph}. $$

(A1)

(b) Work over the first $4.0\ \mathrm{m}$ M1·A1

This segment is a triangle from $0$ to $40\ \mathrm{N}$ over $4.0\ \mathrm{m}$: (M1)

$$ W_1 = \tfrac{1}{2}(4.0)(40) = 80\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) Total work over $10.0\ \mathrm{m}$ M1·M1·A1

Add the rectangle ($4.0$ to $8.0\ \mathrm{m}$) and the final triangle ($8.0$ to $10.0\ \mathrm{m}$) to the first triangle: (M1)

$$ W = \underbrace{\tfrac{1}{2}(4.0)(40)}_{80} + \underbrace{(4.0)(40)}_{160} + \underbrace{\tfrac{1}{2}(2.0)(40)}_{40}. $$

(M1 for setting up all three areas)

$$ W = 80 + 160 + 40 = 280\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(d) Final speed M1·M1·A1

The track is frictionless, so all the work becomes kinetic energy. By the work-energy theorem $W = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$ from rest: (M1)

$$ v = \sqrt{\frac{2W}{m}} = \sqrt{\frac{2(280)}{5.0}}. \quad (\text{M1}) $$ $$ v = \sqrt{112} \approx 11\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(e) Where the acceleration is greatest B1·R1

The acceleration is greatest where the force is greatest, which is the flat region $4.0\ \mathrm{m} \le s \le 8.0\ \mathrm{m}$ where $F = 40\ \mathrm{N}$. (B1)

By Newton's second law $a = F/m$, so on a frictionless track the acceleration tracks the force exactly. (R1)

Insight. The area-equals-work idea is the integral $W = \int F\,ds$ made visual, and it is the only way to handle a force that changes shape over the path. Partition the area into standard triangles and rectangles rather than attempting a single formula. Note that the largest force, not the largest displacement, sets the peak acceleration; speed keeps rising the whole way (the force never reverses), but the rate of gain peaks in the constant-force middle band.

(a) 面积为何等于功 M1·A1

在无穷小位移 $ds$ 内力近似恒定,做功 $dW = F\,ds$,即图下一条窄条的面积。把这些窄条相加:(M1)

$$ W = \int_{0}^{10} F(s)\,ds = F\text{-}s \text{ 图下的面积}. $$

(A1)

(b) 前 $4.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 的功 M1·A1

该段是从 $0$ 到 $40\ \mathrm{N}$、跨 $4.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 的三角形:(M1)

$$ W_1 = \tfrac{1}{2}(4.0)(40) = 80\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) $10.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 的总功 M1·M1·A1

把矩形($4.0$ 至 $8.0\ \mathrm{m}$)与末段三角形($8.0$ 至 $10.0\ \mathrm{m}$)加到第一个三角形上:(M1)

$$ W = \underbrace{\tfrac{1}{2}(4.0)(40)}_{80} + \underbrace{(4.0)(40)}_{160} + \underbrace{\tfrac{1}{2}(2.0)(40)}_{40}. $$

(列出全部三块面积得 M1)

$$ W = 80 + 160 + 40 = 280\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(d) 末速率 M1·M1·A1

轨道无摩擦,故全部功转为动能。由动能定理(从静止)$W = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$:(M1)

$$ v = \sqrt{\frac{2W}{m}} = \sqrt{\frac{2(280)}{5.0}}. \quad (\text{M1}) $$ $$ v = \sqrt{112} \approx 11\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(e) 加速度最大处 B1·R1

加速度在力最大处最大,即 $F = 40\ \mathrm{N}$ 的平坦区 $4.0\ \mathrm{m} \le s \le 8.0\ \mathrm{m}$。(B1)

由牛顿第二定律 $a = F/m$,故无摩擦轨道上加速度与力完全同步。(R1)

要点。"面积即功"就是把积分 $W = \int F\,ds$ 可视化,也是处理沿路径形状变化的力的唯一办法。把面积拆成标准三角形与矩形,而非硬套单一公式。注意是最大的力、而非最大的位移决定峰值加速度;速率全程持续上升(力从不反向),但增速在恒力中段达到峰值。
PART III  ·  PAPER 2 STYLE第三部分  ·  第二卷风格Extended structured · 30 marks长结构题 · 30 分

Worked Solutions详细解析

Q8HARDPaper 2conservation of energy with friction含摩擦的能量守恒[11 marks]

A $4.0\ \mathrm{kg}$ block released from rest down a $5.0\ \mathrm{m}$ ramp at $30^{\circ}$ reaches the bottom at $4.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$. (a) vertical height; (b) PE lost; (c) KE gained; (d) thermal energy from friction; (e) average friction force; (f) frictionless speed and why it is greater.$4.0\ \mathrm{kg}$ 木块从 $30^{\circ}$、长 $5.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 斜面由静止释放,到底端速率 $4.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$。(a) 竖直高度;(b) 损失的势能;(c) 获得的动能;(d) 摩擦生热;(e) 平均摩擦力;(f) 无摩擦时速率及为何更大。

Answers:答案:  (a) $h = 2.5\ \mathrm{m}$  ·  (b) $\approx 98\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (c) $32\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (d) $\approx 66\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (e) $\approx 13\ \mathrm{N}$  ·  (f) $7.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$

(a) Vertical height A1

The drop is the ramp length times $\sin 30^{\circ}$: $h = 5.0\sin 30^{\circ} = 5.0(0.5) = 2.5\ \mathrm{m}$. (A1)

(b) Gravitational PE lost M1·A1

$\Delta E_p = mgh$: (M1)

$$ \Delta E_p = (4.0)(9.81)(2.5) = 98.1\ \mathrm{J} \approx 98\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) Kinetic energy gained M1·A1

From rest, $E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$: (M1)

$$ E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(4.0)(4.0)^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}(4.0)(16) = 32\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(d) Thermal energy from friction M1·A1

Energy is conserved, so the PE lost equals the KE gained plus the heat: $Q = \Delta E_p - E_k$. (M1)

$$ Q = 98.1 - 32 = 66.1\ \mathrm{J} \approx 66\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(e) Average friction force M1·A1

The heat equals the friction force times the distance moved along the ramp: $Q = F_f \, d$ with $d = 5.0\ \mathrm{m}$. (M1)

$$ F_f = \frac{Q}{d} = \frac{66.1}{5.0} = 13.2\ \mathrm{N} \approx 13\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(f) Frictionless speed M1·A1

Without friction all the PE becomes KE: $mgh = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$, so $v = \sqrt{2gh} = \sqrt{2(9.81)(2.5)} = \sqrt{49.05} \approx 7.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$. (M1)

It exceeds $4.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ because, with friction present, part of the gravitational PE is diverted into heat rather than kinetic energy. (A1)

Insight. Build the energy account first: "PE lost $=$ KE gained $+$ heat" is the master equation, and friction is whatever closes the books. The trap is using the ramp length $5.0\ \mathrm{m}$ as the height; only the vertical drop $h = L\sin\theta$ enters $mgh$, while the full slope length enters $Q = F_f d$ because friction acts along the surface. Notice the frictionless answer is mass-independent, $v = \sqrt{2gh}$, a useful sanity check.

(a) 竖直高度 A1

落差为斜面长乘 $\sin 30^{\circ}$:$h = 5.0\sin 30^{\circ} = 5.0(0.5) = 2.5\ \mathrm{m}$。(A1)

(b) 损失的重力势能 M1·A1

$\Delta E_p = mgh$:(M1)

$$ \Delta E_p = (4.0)(9.81)(2.5) = 98.1\ \mathrm{J} \approx 98\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) 获得的动能 M1·A1

从静止,$E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$:(M1)

$$ E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(4.0)(4.0)^{2} = \tfrac{1}{2}(4.0)(16) = 32\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(d) 摩擦生热 M1·A1

能量守恒,故损失的势能等于获得的动能加上热:$Q = \Delta E_p - E_k$。(M1)

$$ Q = 98.1 - 32 = 66.1\ \mathrm{J} \approx 66\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(e) 平均摩擦力 M1·A1

热等于摩擦力乘沿斜面移动的距离:$Q = F_f \, d$,$d = 5.0\ \mathrm{m}$。(M1)

$$ F_f = \frac{Q}{d} = \frac{66.1}{5.0} = 13.2\ \mathrm{N} \approx 13\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(f) 无摩擦时速率 M1·A1

无摩擦时全部势能转为动能:$mgh = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$,故 $v = \sqrt{2gh} = \sqrt{2(9.81)(2.5)} = \sqrt{49.05} \approx 7.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$。(M1)

它大于 $4.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$,因为存在摩擦时部分重力势能被转入热而非动能。(A1)

要点。先建能量账:"损失的势能 $=$ 获得的动能 $+$ 热"是主方程,摩擦就是用来配平账目的那一项。陷阱是把斜面长 $5.0\ \mathrm{m}$ 当作高度;进入 $mgh$ 的只是竖直落差 $h = L\sin\theta$,而 $Q = F_f d$ 用整个斜面长,因为摩擦沿表面作用。注意无摩擦答案与质量无关,$v = \sqrt{2gh}$,是有用的合理性检查。
Q9HARDPaper 2HL ONLYelastic collision in two dimensions二维弹性碰撞[9 marks]

Puck A ($0.20\ \mathrm{kg}$, $3.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ east) collides elastically with identical stationary puck B; A leaves at $30^{\circ}$ north of east. (a) the equal-mass elastic angle result; (b) direction of B; (c) speed of each puck; (d) verify kinetic energy is conserved.冰球 A($0.20\ \mathrm{kg}$,向东 $3.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$)与相同的静止冰球 B 弹性碰撞;A 以东偏北 $30^{\circ}$ 离开。(a) 等质量弹性碰撞的夹角结论;(b) B 的方向;(c) 每个冰球的速率;(d) 验证动能守恒。

Answers:答案:  (a) $90^{\circ}$ apart  ·  (b) $60^{\circ}$ south of east  ·  (c) $v_A \approx 2.6\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$, $v_B = 1.5\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$  ·  (d) $0.90\ \mathrm{J}$ before $=$ $0.90\ \mathrm{J}$ after

(a) The equal-mass elastic angle B1·R1

When a moving body strikes an identical stationary body elastically, the two bodies separate at exactly $90^{\circ}$ to each other. (B1)

This follows from combining momentum conservation ($\vec{u} = \vec{v}_A + \vec{v}_B$) with kinetic energy conservation ($u^{2} = v_A^{2} + v_B^{2}$), which together force $\vec{v}_A \cdot \vec{v}_B = 0$. (R1)

(b) Direction of puck B M1·A1

A leaves at $30^{\circ}$ north of east, so B must leave $90^{\circ}$ away from A: (M1)

B travels at $90^{\circ} - 30^{\circ} = 60^{\circ}$ on the other side of the original line, i.e. $60^{\circ}$ south of east. (A1)

(c) Speed of each puck M1·M1·A1

Conserve momentum along the original (east) direction and perpendicular (north) to it, with $u = 3.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ and equal masses (which cancel): (M1)

$$ \text{north: } 0 = v_A\sin 30^{\circ} - v_B\sin 60^{\circ} \;\Rightarrow\; v_A(0.5) = v_B(0.866). $$ $$ \text{east: } 3.0 = v_A\cos 30^{\circ} + v_B\cos 60^{\circ} = v_A(0.866) + v_B(0.5). \quad (\text{M1}) $$

From the north equation $v_A = 1.732\,v_B$; substituting into the east equation gives $3.0 = 1.5\,v_B + 0.5\,v_B = 2.0\,v_B$, so $v_B = 1.5\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ and $v_A = 2.598 \approx 2.6\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$. (A1)

(d) Check kinetic energy M1·A1

Before: $E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(0.20)(3.0)^{2} = 0.90\ \mathrm{J}$. After: (M1)

$$ E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(0.20)\left(2.598^{2} + 1.5^{2}\right) = 0.10\,(6.75 + 2.25) = 0.10(9.00) = 0.90\ \mathrm{J}. $$

The totals match, confirming the collision is elastic. (A1)

Insight. The $90^{\circ}$ separation is a gift that converts a two-unknown vector problem into a quick pair of equations, but it holds only for equal masses with one target at rest in an elastic collision. The clean method is to resolve momentum along the incident line and perpendicular to it; the perpendicular equation alone fixes the speed ratio. The part (d) energy check is not busywork, it is how the marker confirms you have not silently produced an impossible (energy-creating) outcome.

(a) 等质量弹性碰撞的夹角 B1·R1

当运动物体弹性撞上一个相同的静止物体时,两物体以恰好 $90^{\circ}$ 相互分开。(B1)

这由动量守恒($\vec{u} = \vec{v}_A + \vec{v}_B$)与动能守恒($u^{2} = v_A^{2} + v_B^{2}$)联立得出,两者共同迫使 $\vec{v}_A \cdot \vec{v}_B = 0$。(R1)

(b) 冰球 B 的方向 M1·A1

A 以东偏北 $30^{\circ}$ 离开,故 B 必与 A 成 $90^{\circ}$ 离开:(M1)

B 在原方向线另一侧以 $90^{\circ} - 30^{\circ} = 60^{\circ}$ 飞出,即东偏南 $60^{\circ}$。(A1)

(c) 每个冰球的速率 M1·M1·A1

沿原方向(东)及其垂直方向(北)分别用动量守恒,$u = 3.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$,等质量(约去):(M1)

$$ \text{北: } 0 = v_A\sin 30^{\circ} - v_B\sin 60^{\circ} \;\Rightarrow\; v_A(0.5) = v_B(0.866). $$ $$ \text{东: } 3.0 = v_A\cos 30^{\circ} + v_B\cos 60^{\circ} = v_A(0.866) + v_B(0.5). \quad (\text{M1}) $$

由北向方程 $v_A = 1.732\,v_B$;代入东向方程得 $3.0 = 1.5\,v_B + 0.5\,v_B = 2.0\,v_B$,故 $v_B = 1.5\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$,$v_A = 2.598 \approx 2.6\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$。(A1)

(d) 验证动能守恒 M1·A1

碰前:$E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(0.20)(3.0)^{2} = 0.90\ \mathrm{J}$。碰后:(M1)

$$ E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(0.20)\left(2.598^{2} + 1.5^{2}\right) = 0.10\,(6.75 + 2.25) = 0.10(9.00) = 0.90\ \mathrm{J}. $$

总量相等,确认碰撞为弹性。(A1)

要点。$90^{\circ}$ 分离是一份大礼,它把含两个未知量的矢量问题化为一对快速方程,但仅在弹性碰撞中等质量且其一为静止靶时成立。干净的做法是沿入射线及其垂直方向分解动量;仅垂直方向的方程就定下速率比。(d) 的能量检验并非多余,它正是阅卷确认你没有悄悄给出不可能(凭空生能)结果的方式。
Q10HARDPaper 2power, P = Fv and efficiency on an incline功率、P = Fv 与斜坡上的效率[10 marks]

A $1200\ \mathrm{kg}$ car climbs a $5.0^{\circ}$ road at constant $15\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ against a $500\ \mathrm{N}$ resistive force. (a) weight component down the slope; (b) driving force; (c) useful output power; (d) fuel-energy rate at $25\%$ efficiency; (e) power dissipated against resistance, and why it is less than the output power.$1200\ \mathrm{kg}$ 的汽车以恒定 $15\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ 沿 $5.0^{\circ}$ 的路上坡,克服 $500\ \mathrm{N}$ 阻力。(a) 重力沿坡向下的分量;(b) 驱动力;(c) 有用输出功率;(d) $25\%$ 效率时燃料能速率;(e) 克服阻力耗散的功率及其为何小于输出功率。

Answers:答案:  (a) $\approx 1.0\times 10^{3}\ \mathrm{N}$  ·  (b) $\approx 1.5\times 10^{3}\ \mathrm{N}$  ·  (c) $\approx 22.9\ \mathrm{kW}$  ·  (d) $\approx 92\ \mathrm{kW}$  ·  (e) $7.5\ \mathrm{kW}$

(a) Weight component down the slope M1·A1

The component of weight along an incline is $mg\sin\theta$: (M1)

$$ mg\sin\theta = (1200)(9.81)\sin 5.0^{\circ} = 11772 \times 0.0872 \approx 1.03\times 10^{3}\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(b) Driving force M1·A1

At constant speed the resultant force is zero, so the driving force balances both the weight component and the resistive force. (M1)

$$ F = mg\sin\theta + F_{\text{res}} = 1026 + 500 = 1526\ \mathrm{N} \approx 1.5\times 10^{3}\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(c) Useful output power M1·A1

$P = Fv$ with the driving force and the constant speed: (M1)

$$ P_{\text{out}} = (1526)(15) = 22890\ \mathrm{W} \approx 22.9\ \mathrm{kW}. $$

(A1)

(d) Fuel-energy rate M1·A1

$\eta = \dfrac{P_{\text{useful}}}{P_{\text{input}}}$, so $P_{\text{input}} = \dfrac{P_{\text{out}}}{\eta}$: (M1)

$$ P_{\text{input}} = \frac{22890}{0.25} = 91560\ \mathrm{W} \approx 92\ \mathrm{kW}. $$

(A1)

(e) Power against resistance M1·A1

The power spent against the resistive force is $P = F_{\text{res}}\,v = (500)(15) = 7500\ \mathrm{W} = 7.5\ \mathrm{kW}$. (M1)

It is less than the $22.9\ \mathrm{kW}$ output because the remaining $\approx 15.4\ \mathrm{kW}$ goes into raising the car's gravitational PE as it climbs. (A1)

Insight. A constant-speed climb has zero net force, so the driving force must overcome two distinct opponents at once: gravity (through $mg\sin\theta$) and resistance. Splitting the useful output into "power to climb" plus "power against drag" is exactly the energy bookkeeping the examiner rewards. Efficiency then bridges useful output and fuel input; the fuel power always exceeds the useful power, and the difference, here about $69\ \mathrm{kW}$, leaves the engine as heat.

(a) 重力沿坡向下的分量 M1·A1

重力沿斜面的分量为 $mg\sin\theta$:(M1)

$$ mg\sin\theta = (1200)(9.81)\sin 5.0^{\circ} = 11772 \times 0.0872 \approx 1.03\times 10^{3}\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(b) 驱动力 M1·A1

匀速时合力为零,故驱动力同时平衡重力分量与阻力。(M1)

$$ F = mg\sin\theta + F_{\text{res}} = 1026 + 500 = 1526\ \mathrm{N} \approx 1.5\times 10^{3}\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(c) 有用输出功率 M1·A1

用驱动力与恒定速率代入 $P = Fv$:(M1)

$$ P_{\text{out}} = (1526)(15) = 22890\ \mathrm{W} \approx 22.9\ \mathrm{kW}. $$

(A1)

(d) 燃料能速率 M1·A1

$\eta = \dfrac{P_{\text{useful}}}{P_{\text{input}}}$,故 $P_{\text{input}} = \dfrac{P_{\text{out}}}{\eta}$:(M1)

$$ P_{\text{input}} = \frac{22890}{0.25} = 91560\ \mathrm{W} \approx 92\ \mathrm{kW}. $$

(A1)

(e) 克服阻力的功率 M1·A1

克服阻力所耗功率为 $P = F_{\text{res}}\,v = (500)(15) = 7500\ \mathrm{W} = 7.5\ \mathrm{kW}$。(M1)

它小于 $22.9\ \mathrm{kW}$ 的输出,因为其余约 $15.4\ \mathrm{kW}$ 用于在上坡时增加汽车的重力势能。(A1)

要点。匀速上坡合力为零,故驱动力须同时克服两个对手:重力(通过 $mg\sin\theta$)与阻力。把有用输出拆成"上坡功率"加"克服阻力功率"正是阅卷奖励的能量记账。效率随后把有用输出与燃料输入相连;燃料功率总大于有用功率,其差(此处约 $69\ \mathrm{kW}$)以热离开发动机。