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Unit D.4 · SolutionsUnit D.4 · 解析

Induction · Solutions电磁感应 · 解析

Companion to the IB-Style Practice SetIB 风格练习题的解析配套

MEDIUM HARD Paper 1 Paper 1B Paper 2 HL ONLY

Syllabus D4.1 to D4.6考纲 D4.1 至 D4.6PHYSICS HL



PART I  ·  PAPER 1 STYLE第一部分  ·  第一卷风格Short structured · 30 marks短结构题 · 30 分

Worked Solutions详细解析

Q1MEDIUMPaper 1HL ONLYflux and flux linkage geometry磁通量与磁链几何[4 marks]

Circular coil, $80$ turns, radius $4.0\ \mathrm{cm}$, in $B = 0.25\ \mathrm{T}$; normal at $30^{\circ}$ to the field. (a) flux through one turn; (b) flux linkage and unit.圆线圈 $80$ 匝、半径 $4.0\ \mathrm{cm}$,处于 $B = 0.25\ \mathrm{T}$;法线与场成 $30^{\circ}$。(a) 单匝磁通量;(b) 磁链与单位。

Answers:答案:  (a) $\Phi \approx 1.1\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{Wb}$  ·  (b) $N\Phi \approx 8.7\times 10^{-2}\ \mathrm{Wb}$

(a) Flux through one turn M1·A1

The angle is measured from the normal, so use $\Phi = BA\cos\theta$. The area is $A = \pi r^{2} = \pi(0.040)^{2} = 5.03\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{m^{2}}$. (M1)

$$ \Phi = BA\cos\theta = (0.25)(5.03\times 10^{-3})\cos 30^{\circ} \approx 1.1\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{Wb}. $$

(A1)

(b) Flux linkage M1·A1

Flux linkage is the flux multiplied by the number of turns: $N\Phi = 80 \times 1.089\times 10^{-3}$. (M1)

$$ N\Phi \approx 8.7\times 10^{-2}\ \mathrm{Wb}. $$

The unit of flux linkage is the weber (sometimes written weber-turns). (A1)

Insight. The single most common slip in D4.1 is the angle. The data-booklet formula $\Phi = BA\cos\theta$ defines $\theta$ from the normal, so a normal at $30^{\circ}$ uses $\cos 30^{\circ}$. Had the question said the field made $30^{\circ}$ with the plane, you would need $\cos 60^{\circ}$ (equivalently $\sin 30^{\circ}$). Read that sentence twice. The second trap is forgetting the factor $N$: flux linkage is always $N\Phi$, not $\Phi$, for a multi-turn coil.

(a) 单匝磁通量 M1·A1

角度自法线量起,故用 $\Phi = BA\cos\theta$。面积 $A = \pi r^{2} = \pi(0.040)^{2} = 5.03\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{m^{2}}$。(M1)

$$ \Phi = BA\cos\theta = (0.25)(5.03\times 10^{-3})\cos 30^{\circ} \approx 1.1\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{Wb}. $$

(A1)

(b) 磁链 M1·A1

磁链是磁通量乘以匝数:$N\Phi = 80 \times 1.089\times 10^{-3}$。(M1)

$$ N\Phi \approx 8.7\times 10^{-2}\ \mathrm{Wb}. $$

磁链的单位是韦伯(有时写作韦伯-匝)。(A1)

要点。D4.1 最常见的失误是角度。数据手册公式 $\Phi = BA\cos\theta$ 中 $\theta$ 自法线量起,故法线成 $30^{\circ}$ 时用 $\cos 30^{\circ}$。若题目说场与平面成 $30^{\circ}$,则要用 $\cos 60^{\circ}$(即 $\sin 30^{\circ}$)。这句话要读两遍。第二个陷阱是漏掉因子 $N$:多匝线圈的磁链恒为 $N\Phi$,而非 $\Phi$。
Q2MEDIUMPaper 1HL ONLYmotional emf on rails导轨上的动生电动势[6 marks]

Rod $L = 0.50\ \mathrm{m}$ at $v = 6.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$, $B = 0.40\ \mathrm{T}$ perpendicular, rails closed by $R = 5.0\ \Omega$. (a) emf; (b) current; (c) power in the resistor.棒 $L = 0.50\ \mathrm{m}$、$v = 6.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$、$B = 0.40\ \mathrm{T}$ 垂直,导轨由 $R = 5.0\ \Omega$ 闭合。(a) 电动势;(b) 电流;(c) 电阻功率。

Answers:答案:  (a) $\varepsilon = 1.2\ \mathrm{V}$  ·  (b) $I = 0.24\ \mathrm{A}$  ·  (c) $P = 0.29\ \mathrm{W}$

(a) Motional emf M1·A1

The rod, field and velocity are mutually perpendicular, so use $\varepsilon = BvL$. (M1)

$$ \varepsilon = BvL = (0.40)(6.0)(0.50) = 1.2\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(b) Current M1·A1

The rod acts as a cell of emf $1.2\ \mathrm{V}$ across $R = 5.0\ \Omega$: $I = \varepsilon / R$. (M1)

$$ I = \frac{1.2}{5.0} = 0.24\ \mathrm{A}. $$

(A1)

(c) Power dissipated M1·A1

$P = \varepsilon I = (1.2)(0.24) = 0.288\ \mathrm{W}$, equivalently $I^{2}R = (0.24)^{2}(5.0)$. (M1)

$$ P \approx 0.29\ \mathrm{W}. $$

(A1)

Insight. Motional emf $\varepsilon = BvL$ is not a fourth law: it is Faraday's law applied to a circuit whose area grows at a steady rate $Lv$, since $\Delta\Phi/\Delta t = B(Lv)$. Stating that link earns the reasoning mark in longer questions. Note that $P = \varepsilon I$ and $P = I^{2}R$ must agree; if they do not, an arithmetic error has crept in, so computing both is a free self-check.

(a) 动生电动势 M1·A1

棒、场与速度两两垂直,故用 $\varepsilon = BvL$。(M1)

$$ \varepsilon = BvL = (0.40)(6.0)(0.50) = 1.2\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(b) 电流 M1·A1

棒相当于一个 $1.2\ \mathrm{V}$ 电动势的电池,接在 $R = 5.0\ \Omega$ 上:$I = \varepsilon / R$。(M1)

$$ I = \frac{1.2}{5.0} = 0.24\ \mathrm{A}. $$

(A1)

(c) 耗散功率 M1·A1

$P = \varepsilon I = (1.2)(0.24) = 0.288\ \mathrm{W}$,亦即 $I^{2}R = (0.24)^{2}(5.0)$。(M1)

$$ P \approx 0.29\ \mathrm{W}. $$

(A1)

要点。动生电动势 $\varepsilon = BvL$ 并非第四条定律:它是法拉第定律应用于面积以恒定速率 $Lv$ 增长的回路,因为 $\Delta\Phi/\Delta t = B(Lv)$。在长题中写出这一联系可拿到推理分。注意 $P = \varepsilon I$ 与 $P = I^{2}R$ 必须一致;若不一致则混入了算术错误,故两种都算是一次免费的自检。
Q3HARDPaper 1HL ONLYFaraday's law, collapsing field法拉第定律与场衰减[6 marks]

Coil $400$ turns, $A = 2.5\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{m^{2}}$, plane perpendicular to field; $B$ falls from $0.60\ \mathrm{T}$ to $0$ in $0.015\ \mathrm{s}$. (a) flux change per turn; (b) Faraday's law and emf; (c) one change that doubles the emf.线圈 $400$ 匝、$A = 2.5\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{m^{2}}$,平面垂直于场;$B$ 在 $0.015\ \mathrm{s}$ 内由 $0.60\ \mathrm{T}$ 降到 $0$。(a) 单匝磁通量变化;(b) 法拉第定律与电动势;(c) 使电动势翻倍的一种改动。

Answers:答案:  (a) $|\Delta\Phi| = 1.5\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{Wb}$  ·  (b) $|\varepsilon| = 40\ \mathrm{V}$  ·  (c) halve the collapse time (or double $N$)

(a) Flux change per turn M1·A1

The plane is perpendicular to $B$, so $\theta = 0$ and $\Phi = BA$. Only $B$ changes: $\Delta\Phi = A\,\Delta B = (2.5\times 10^{-3})(0.60)$. (M1)

$$ |\Delta\Phi| = 1.5\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{Wb}. $$

(A1)

(b) Faraday's law and emf R1·M1·A1

Faraday's law: the induced emf equals the rate of change of flux linkage, $\varepsilon = -N\,\Delta\Phi/\Delta t$. (R1)

Taking magnitudes: $|\varepsilon| = N\,|\Delta\Phi|/\Delta t = 400 \times (1.5\times 10^{-3})/0.015$. (M1)

$$ |\varepsilon| = 400 \times 0.10 = 40\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(c) Doubling the emf B1

Halve the collapse time (from $0.015\ \mathrm{s}$ to $0.0075\ \mathrm{s}$), since $\varepsilon \propto 1/\Delta t$. Doubling the number of turns would do the same. (B1)

Insight. Faraday's law is about a rate, so the same flux change spread over half the time doubles the emf. This is exactly the principle of an ignition coil: a large turns count plus a deliberately short switch-off time turns an ordinary battery into a high-voltage spark. Quote the law in words (rate of change of flux linkage) for the R1 mark before substituting numbers; markers reward the statement, not just the arithmetic.

(a) 单匝磁通量变化 M1·A1

平面垂直于 $B$,故 $\theta = 0$、$\Phi = BA$。只有 $B$ 变:$\Delta\Phi = A\,\Delta B = (2.5\times 10^{-3})(0.60)$。(M1)

$$ |\Delta\Phi| = 1.5\times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{Wb}. $$

(A1)

(b) 法拉第定律与电动势 R1·M1·A1

法拉第定律:感应电动势等于磁链变化率,$\varepsilon = -N\,\Delta\Phi/\Delta t$。(R1)

取大小:$|\varepsilon| = N\,|\Delta\Phi|/\Delta t = 400 \times (1.5\times 10^{-3})/0.015$。(M1)

$$ |\varepsilon| = 400 \times 0.10 = 40\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(c) 使电动势翻倍 B1

把衰减时间减半(由 $0.015\ \mathrm{s}$ 到 $0.0075\ \mathrm{s}$),因为 $\varepsilon \propto 1/\Delta t$。把匝数加倍亦可。(B1)

要点。法拉第定律讲的是变化率,故同样的磁通量变化在一半时间内完成会使电动势翻倍。这正是点火线圈的原理:高匝数加上刻意缩短的切断时间,把普通电池变成高压火花。代入数字前先用文字陈述定律(磁链变化率)以拿到 R1;阅卷奖励陈述,而非仅算术。
Q4HARDPaper 1HL ONLYLenz's law and energy楞次定律与能量[6 marks]

Horizontal ring; field directed vertically downward through it and increasing. (a) state Lenz's law; (b) direction of the induced current seen from above, justified by the flux change; (c) why Lenz's law follows from conservation of energy.水平环;场竖直向下穿过它且正在增大。(a) 陈述楞次定律;(b) 从上方看感应电流方向,并以磁通量变化论证;(c) 楞次定律为何源于能量守恒。

Answers:答案:  (a) induced current opposes the change in flux  ·  (b) anticlockwise seen from above  ·  (c) an aiding current would create energy from nothing

(a) Statement of Lenz's law B1

The induced current flows in the direction that opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it. (B1)

(b) Direction of the induced current M1·M1·A1

The downward flux through the ring is increasing. (M1)

By Lenz's law the induced current must oppose the increase, so it creates a magnetic field pointing upward inside the ring. (M1)

By the right-hand grip rule, a field pointing up out of the ring requires the current to flow anticlockwise as seen from above. (A1)

(c) Link to conservation of energy R1·R1

If the induced current instead aided the increase, it would reinforce the flux, drive an ever-larger current, and release electrical energy without any work being done. (R1)

That would create energy from nothing, which is forbidden. The opposing direction means work must be done against the induced effect to keep changing the flux, and that work supplies the electrical energy. (R1)

Insight. Always answer a Lenz direction question in the fixed order: state the change in flux, apply opposition, then use the grip rule for the final sense. Markschemes credit the reasoning chain, not just the final arrow. The energy cross-check is decisive: if your answer would let current grow without an external push, you have the direction backwards. The minus sign in $\varepsilon = -N\,\Delta\Phi/\Delta t$ is the bookkeeping symbol for exactly this conservation requirement.

(a) 楞次定律的陈述 B1

感应电流的方向总是反抗产生它的磁通量变化。(B1)

(b) 感应电流方向 M1·M1·A1

穿过环的向下磁通量正在增大。(M1)

由楞次定律,感应电流必须反抗这一增大,故在环内产生向上的磁场。(M1)

由右手握拳定则,环内向上、即指向环外的场要求电流从上方看为逆时针。(A1)

(c) 与能量守恒的联系 R1·R1

若感应电流反而助长增大,它会强化磁通量、驱动越来越大的电流,并在不做功的情况下释放电能。(R1)

那将凭空创造能量,这是不允许的。反抗方向意味着必须克服感应效应做功才能持续改变磁通量,而这份功提供电能。(R1)

要点。回答楞次判向题始终按固定顺序:先说磁通量的变化,再用反抗,最后用握拳定则定方向。评分奖励推理链,而非只给最终箭头。能量复核是决定性的:若你的答案让电流无需外推便能增长,则方向反了。$\varepsilon = -N\,\Delta\Phi/\Delta t$ 中的负号正是这一守恒要求的记账符号。
Q5HARDPaper 1HL ONLYtransformer + transmission变压器与输电[8 marks]

Ideal step-up transformer: $N_p = 500$, $V_p = 240\ \mathrm{V}$, $V_s = 12\,000\ \mathrm{V}$; cable $R = 8.0\ \Omega$ carries $6.0\ \mathrm{kW}$. (a) secondary turns; (b) cable current and power lost; (c) loss if sent at $240\ \mathrm{V}$, and what this shows.理想升压变压器:$N_p = 500$、$V_p = 240\ \mathrm{V}$、$V_s = 12\,000\ \mathrm{V}$;输电线 $R = 8.0\ \Omega$ 输送 $6.0\ \mathrm{kW}$。(a) 次级匝数;(b) 线电流与损耗;(c) 以 $240\ \mathrm{V}$ 输送时的损耗及其意义。

Answers:答案:  (a) $N_s = 25\,000$ turns  ·  (b) $I = 0.50\ \mathrm{A}$, $P_{\text{loss}} = 2.0\ \mathrm{W}$  ·  (c) $P_{\text{loss}} = 5.0\ \mathrm{kW}$ at $240\ \mathrm{V}$

(a) Secondary turns M1·A1

For an ideal transformer $\dfrac{V_s}{V_p} = \dfrac{N_s}{N_p}$, so $N_s = N_p \dfrac{V_s}{V_p} = 500 \times \dfrac{12\,000}{240}$. (M1)

$$ N_s = 500 \times 50 = 25\,000\ \text{turns}. $$

(A1)

(b) Cable current and power lost M1·M1·A1

The transmission current follows from $P = VI$ at the transmission voltage: $I = P/V = 6000/12\,000 = 0.50\ \mathrm{A}$. (M1)

Power lost in the cable is $P_{\text{loss}} = I^{2}R = (0.50)^{2}(8.0)$. (M1)

$$ P_{\text{loss}} = 0.25 \times 8.0 = 2.0\ \mathrm{W}. $$

(A1)

(c) Loss at $240\ \mathrm{V}$ and the conclusion M1·A1·R1

At $240\ \mathrm{V}$ the current is $I = 6000/240 = 25\ \mathrm{A}$. (M1)

$$ P_{\text{loss}} = I^{2}R = (25)^{2}(8.0) = 5000\ \mathrm{W} = 5.0\ \mathrm{kW}. $$

(A1)

The loss is $2500$ times larger, and it would consume most of the $6.0\ \mathrm{kW}$ being sent. Transmitting at high voltage keeps the current, and therefore the $I^{2}R$ loss, very small. (R1)

Insight. The whole grid rests on $P_{\text{loss}} = I^{2}R$: for a fixed delivered power $P = VI$, raising $V$ lowers $I$, and because the loss goes as the square of the current, raising the voltage by a factor of $50$ cuts the loss by $50^{2} = 2500$. Note the cable resistance $R$ is fixed by the wire, so it is the current that must be attacked, not $R$. This is the reason mains is AC: only a changing flux drives a transformer, so AC is what lets the voltage be stepped up for transmission and back down for use.

(a) 次级匝数 M1·A1

理想变压器 $\dfrac{V_s}{V_p} = \dfrac{N_s}{N_p}$,故 $N_s = N_p \dfrac{V_s}{V_p} = 500 \times \dfrac{12\,000}{240}$。(M1)

$$ N_s = 500 \times 50 = 25\,000\ \text{匝}. $$

(A1)

(b) 线电流与损耗功率 M1·M1·A1

输电电流由输电电压下的 $P = VI$ 得出:$I = P/V = 6000/12\,000 = 0.50\ \mathrm{A}$。(M1)

线中损耗功率 $P_{\text{loss}} = I^{2}R = (0.50)^{2}(8.0)$。(M1)

$$ P_{\text{loss}} = 0.25 \times 8.0 = 2.0\ \mathrm{W}. $$

(A1)

(c) $240\ \mathrm{V}$ 时的损耗与结论 M1·A1·R1

$240\ \mathrm{V}$ 时电流为 $I = 6000/240 = 25\ \mathrm{A}$。(M1)

$$ P_{\text{loss}} = I^{2}R = (25)^{2}(8.0) = 5000\ \mathrm{W} = 5.0\ \mathrm{kW}. $$

(A1)

损耗大了 $2500$ 倍,几乎会吞掉所输送的 $6.0\ \mathrm{kW}$。高压输电使电流、从而 $I^{2}R$ 损耗都很小。(R1)

要点。整个电网都依赖 $P_{\text{loss}} = I^{2}R$:对固定的输送功率 $P = VI$,提高 $V$ 会降低 $I$;由于损耗按电流平方变化,电压提高 $50$ 倍可使损耗降为原来的 $50^{2} = 2500$ 分之一。注意线电阻 $R$ 由导线决定,故要攻克的是电流而非 $R$。这正是市电采用交流的原因:只有变化的磁通量才驱动变压器,故只有交流才能为输电升压、再为使用降压。
PART II  ·  PAPER 1B / DATA ANALYSIS第二部分  ·  第一卷 B / 数据分析Graphs · data · uncertainties · 22 marks图像 · 数据 · 不确定度 · 22 分

Worked Solutions详细解析

Q6HARDPaper 1BHL ONLYflux-time graph to emf磁通量-时间图求电动势[10 marks]

Flux linkage vs time in three straight segments: $0 \to 0.40\ \mathrm{Wb}$ over $0.20\ \mathrm{s}$; constant at $0.40\ \mathrm{Wb}$ for $0.20\ \mathrm{s}$; $0.40 \to 0\ \mathrm{Wb}$ over $0.10\ \mathrm{s}$. (a) how emf comes from the graph; (b) emf in each segment; (c) sketch emf vs time; (d) percentage uncertainty in segment-1 emf.磁链对时间分三段直线:$0.20\ \mathrm{s}$ 内 $0 \to 0.40\ \mathrm{Wb}$;$0.20\ \mathrm{s}$ 内恒为 $0.40\ \mathrm{Wb}$;$0.10\ \mathrm{s}$ 内 $0.40 \to 0\ \mathrm{Wb}$。(a) 电动势如何从图得出;(b) 各段电动势;(c) 画电动势-时间图;(d) 第 1 段电动势的百分比不确定度。

Answers:答案:  (a) emf $= $ magnitude of the gradient  ·  (b) $2.0\ \mathrm{V}$, $0\ \mathrm{V}$, $4.0\ \mathrm{V}$  ·  (d) $10\%$

(a) Reading emf from the graph M1·A1

Faraday's law gives $|\varepsilon| = |\Delta(N\Phi)/\Delta t|$, which is the magnitude of the gradient of the flux-linkage-time graph. (M1)

A steeper segment means a larger emf; a flat segment (constant flux) gives zero emf. (A1)

(b) emf in each segment A1·A1·A1

Segment 1: $|\varepsilon| = 0.40/0.20 = 2.0\ \mathrm{V}$. (A1)

Segment 2: flux constant, so gradient $= 0$ and $|\varepsilon| = 0\ \mathrm{V}$. (A1)

Segment 3: $|\varepsilon| = 0.40/0.10 = 4.0\ \mathrm{V}$. (A1)

(c) emf-time sketch M1·A1·A1

The emf-time graph is a series of horizontal steps. (M1)

From $0$ to $0.20\ \mathrm{s}$ it sits at $2.0\ \mathrm{V}$; from $0.20$ to $0.40\ \mathrm{s}$ it drops to $0\ \mathrm{V}$. (A1)

From $0.40$ to $0.50\ \mathrm{s}$ it jumps to the opposite sign at magnitude $4.0\ \mathrm{V}$, because the flux is now decreasing rather than increasing. (A1)

(d) Percentage uncertainty (segment 1) M1·A1

The emf is a quotient, so the percentage uncertainties add: $\dfrac{\Delta\varepsilon}{\varepsilon} = \dfrac{\Delta(N\Phi)}{N\Phi} + \dfrac{\Delta t}{t} = \dfrac{0.02}{0.40} + \dfrac{0.01}{0.20}$. (M1)

$$ = 5\% + 5\% = 10\%. $$

(A1)

Insight. The signature D4.3 graph skill is "emf is the gradient of flux linkage against time", so a piecewise-linear flux gives a piecewise-constant (step) emf. The detail that separates a 6 from a 7 is the sign flip in segment 3: a falling flux induces an emf of opposite polarity to a rising one, so the third step must sit below the axis. For uncertainties, remember the rule for a quotient is to add fractional (percentage) uncertainties, never the absolute ones.

(a) 从图读电动势 M1·A1

法拉第定律给出 $|\varepsilon| = |\Delta(N\Phi)/\Delta t|$,即磁链-时间图斜率的大小。(M1)

段越陡电动势越大;平直段(磁通量不变)给出零电动势。(A1)

(b) 各段电动势 A1·A1·A1

第 1 段:$|\varepsilon| = 0.40/0.20 = 2.0\ \mathrm{V}$。(A1)

第 2 段:磁通量恒定,斜率 $= 0$,$|\varepsilon| = 0\ \mathrm{V}$。(A1)

第 3 段:$|\varepsilon| = 0.40/0.10 = 4.0\ \mathrm{V}$。(A1)

(c) 电动势-时间图 M1·A1·A1

电动势-时间图为一系列水平台阶。(M1)

$0$ 至 $0.20\ \mathrm{s}$ 停在 $2.0\ \mathrm{V}$;$0.20$ 至 $0.40\ \mathrm{s}$ 降到 $0\ \mathrm{V}$。(A1)

$0.40$ 至 $0.50\ \mathrm{s}$ 跳到相反符号、大小 $4.0\ \mathrm{V}$,因为此时磁通量在减小而非增大。(A1)

(d) 百分比不确定度(第 1 段) M1·A1

电动势是商,故百分比不确定度相加:$\dfrac{\Delta\varepsilon}{\varepsilon} = \dfrac{\Delta(N\Phi)}{N\Phi} + \dfrac{\Delta t}{t} = \dfrac{0.02}{0.40} + \dfrac{0.01}{0.20}$。(M1)

$$ = 5\% + 5\% = 10\%. $$

(A1)

要点。D4.3 标志性的图像技能是"电动势是磁链对时间的斜率",故分段线性的磁通量给出分段恒定(台阶)的电动势。区分 6 分与 7 分的细节是第 3 段的符号翻转:下降的磁通量感应出与上升时极性相反的电动势,故第三个台阶必须落在坐标轴下方。对不确定度,记住商的法则是分数(百分比)不确定度相加,绝不相加绝对值。
Q7HARDPaper 1BHL ONLYrotating coil, phase and uncertainty旋转线圈、相位与不确定度[12 marks]

Coil $200$ turns, $A = 0.015\ \mathrm{m^{2}}$, $f = 60\ \mathrm{Hz}$, $B = 0.080\ \mathrm{T}$, face-on at $t = 0$. (a) max flux linkage; (b) $\omega$ and peak emf; (c) sketch flux and emf vs time, phase difference; (d) percentage uncertainty in peak emf with $\Delta f = \pm 1\ \mathrm{Hz}$, $\Delta B = \pm 0.002\ \mathrm{T}$.线圈 $200$ 匝、$A = 0.015\ \mathrm{m^{2}}$、$f = 60\ \mathrm{Hz}$、$B = 0.080\ \mathrm{T}$,$t = 0$ 正对。(a) 最大磁链;(b) $\omega$ 与峰值电动势;(c) 画磁链与电动势对时间、相位差;(d) 由 $\Delta f = \pm 1\ \mathrm{Hz}$、$\Delta B = \pm 0.002\ \mathrm{T}$ 求峰值电动势百分比不确定度。

Answers:答案:  (a) $N\Phi_{\max} = 0.24\ \mathrm{Wb}$  ·  (b) $\omega \approx 377\ \mathrm{rad\,s^{-1}}$, $\varepsilon_{0} \approx 90.5\ \mathrm{V}$  ·  (c) phase difference $90^{\circ}$  ·  (d) $\approx 4.2\%$

(a) Maximum flux linkage M1·A1

The flux linkage is greatest when the coil is face-on, where $N\Phi_{\max} = NBA$. (M1)

$$ N\Phi_{\max} = (200)(0.080)(0.015) = 0.24\ \mathrm{Wb}. $$

(A1)

(b) Angular frequency and peak emf M1·M1·A1

$\omega = 2\pi f = 2\pi(60) \approx 377\ \mathrm{rad\,s^{-1}}$. (M1)

Peak emf $\varepsilon_{0} = NBA\omega = (0.24)(377)$, using $NBA = 0.24\ \mathrm{Wb}$ from (a). (M1)

$$ \varepsilon_{0} \approx 90.5\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(c) Flux and emf sketch M1·A1·A1·A1

The flux linkage is a cosine, starting at its maximum $0.24\ \mathrm{Wb}$ at $t = 0$ (coil face-on). (M1·A1)

The emf is a sine of amplitude $90.5\ \mathrm{V}$, starting at zero at $t = 0$ and peaking a quarter-period later. (A1)

The emf and flux are $90^{\circ}$ out of phase: the emf peaks exactly where the flux crosses zero. (A1)

(d) Percentage uncertainty in peak emf M1·A1

$\varepsilon_{0} = NBA(2\pi f)$ is a product, so the percentage uncertainties of $B$ and $f$ add ($N$, $A$ exact): $\dfrac{\Delta\varepsilon_{0}}{\varepsilon_{0}} = \dfrac{\Delta B}{B} + \dfrac{\Delta f}{f} = \dfrac{0.002}{0.080} + \dfrac{1}{60}$. (M1)

$$ = 2.5\% + 1.7\% \approx 4.2\%. $$

(A1)

Insight. Two examiner favourites live here. First, the phase: differentiating $\Phi = BA\cos\omega t$ gives $\varepsilon = NBA\omega\sin\omega t$, so the emf is the flux shifted by $90^{\circ}$, peaking where the flux is zero, not where it is maximal. Second, the uncertainty rule for a product is to add fractional uncertainties; here $\omega = 2\pi f$, so the constant $2\pi$ contributes no uncertainty and only $f$ and $B$ matter.

(a) 最大磁链 M1·A1

磁链在线圈正对时最大,此时 $N\Phi_{\max} = NBA$。(M1)

$$ N\Phi_{\max} = (200)(0.080)(0.015) = 0.24\ \mathrm{Wb}. $$

(A1)

(b) 角频率与峰值电动势 M1·M1·A1

$\omega = 2\pi f = 2\pi(60) \approx 377\ \mathrm{rad\,s^{-1}}$。(M1)

峰值电动势 $\varepsilon_{0} = NBA\omega = (0.24)(377)$,用 (a) 中 $NBA = 0.24\ \mathrm{Wb}$。(M1)

$$ \varepsilon_{0} \approx 90.5\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(c) 磁链与电动势图 M1·A1·A1·A1

磁链为余弦,$t = 0$(线圈正对)时从最大值 $0.24\ \mathrm{Wb}$ 出发。(M1·A1)

电动势为幅值 $90.5\ \mathrm{V}$ 的正弦,$t = 0$ 时为零,四分之一周期后达峰值。(A1)

电动势与磁链相位差 $90^{\circ}$:电动势的峰值恰在磁通量过零处。(A1)

(d) 峰值电动势的百分比不确定度 M1·A1

$\varepsilon_{0} = NBA(2\pi f)$ 为乘积,故 $B$ 与 $f$ 的百分比不确定度相加($N$、$A$ 精确):$\dfrac{\Delta\varepsilon_{0}}{\varepsilon_{0}} = \dfrac{\Delta B}{B} + \dfrac{\Delta f}{f} = \dfrac{0.002}{0.080} + \dfrac{1}{60}$。(M1)

$$ = 2.5\% + 1.7\% \approx 4.2\%. $$

(A1)

要点。这里有两个阅卷者偏爱的点。其一是相位:对 $\Phi = BA\cos\omega t$ 求导得 $\varepsilon = NBA\omega\sin\omega t$,故电动势是磁通量平移 $90^{\circ}$,峰值在磁通量为零处,而非最大处。其二是乘积的不确定度法则为分数不确定度相加;这里 $\omega = 2\pi f$,常数 $2\pi$ 不贡献不确定度,只有 $f$ 与 $B$ 起作用。
PART III  ·  PAPER 2 STYLE第三部分  ·  第二卷风格Extended structured · 30 marks长结构题 · 30 分

Worked Solutions详细解析

Q8HARDPaper 2HL ONLYAC generator, rms, scaling交流发电机、有效值与标度[12 marks]

AC generator: coil $80$ turns, $A = 0.020\ \mathrm{m^{2}}$, $f = 50\ \mathrm{Hz}$, $B = 0.15\ \mathrm{T}$. (a) principle and law; (b) $\omega$ and peak emf; (c) emf vs time and rms emf; (d) effect of doubling $f$; (e) coil position at peak emf, explained by rate of change of flux.交流发电机:线圈 $80$ 匝、$A = 0.020\ \mathrm{m^{2}}$、$f = 50\ \mathrm{Hz}$、$B = 0.15\ \mathrm{T}$。(a) 原理与定律;(b) $\omega$ 与峰值电动势;(c) 电动势-时间与有效值;(d) $f$ 加倍的影响;(e) 峰值电动势时线圈位置,用磁通量变化率解释。

Answers:答案:  (b) $\omega \approx 314\ \mathrm{rad\,s^{-1}}$, $\varepsilon_{0} \approx 75.4\ \mathrm{V}$  ·  (c) $\varepsilon = 75.4\sin(314t)\ \mathrm{V}$, $\varepsilon_{\text{rms}} \approx 53.3\ \mathrm{V}$  ·  (d) peak emf and frequency both double  ·  (e) coil plane parallel to the field

(a) Principle and law M1·A1

As the coil rotates, the flux linking it changes continuously, which induces an emf. (M1)

This is Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction: the emf equals the rate of change of flux linkage. (A1)

(b) Angular frequency and peak emf M1·M1·A1

$\omega = 2\pi f = 2\pi(50) \approx 314\ \mathrm{rad\,s^{-1}}$. (M1)

$\varepsilon_{0} = NBA\omega = (80)(0.15)(0.020)(314)$. (M1)

$$ \varepsilon_{0} = 0.24 \times 314 \approx 75.4\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(c) emf function and rms value A1·M1·A1

With the coil face-on at $t = 0$, the flux is a cosine and the emf is a sine: $\varepsilon = 75.4\sin(314\,t)\ \mathrm{V}$. (A1)

For a sinusoid the rms value is the peak divided by $\sqrt{2}$: $\varepsilon_{\text{rms}} = \varepsilon_{0}/\sqrt{2} = 75.4/\sqrt{2}$. (M1)

$$ \varepsilon_{\text{rms}} \approx 53.3\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(d) Doubling the frequency A1·R1

The output frequency doubles, since it equals the rotation frequency. (A1)

The peak emf also doubles, because $\varepsilon_{0} = NBA\omega \propto \omega \propto f$; doubling $\omega$ doubles $\varepsilon_{0}$. (R1)

(e) Coil position at maximum emf M1·A1

The emf is greatest when the flux is changing fastest, which is when the flux is passing through zero. That occurs when the coil plane is parallel to the field (the normal at $90^{\circ}$). (M1)

At that instant $\Phi = 0$ but $|\mathrm{d}\Phi/\mathrm{d}t|$ is maximal, so $|\varepsilon|$ is maximal. (A1)

Insight. The counterintuitive result examiners probe is that the emf peaks where the flux is zero, not where it is largest, because emf tracks the rate of change. The factor of $\sqrt{2}$ linking peak and rms is worth memorising in both directions ($\varepsilon_{\text{rms}} = \varepsilon_0/\sqrt{2}$, $\varepsilon_0 = \sqrt{2}\,\varepsilon_{\text{rms}}$); mains is always quoted as an rms value. Finally, because $\varepsilon_0 \propto \omega$, a real generator must be spun at a tightly controlled speed to hold both the mains voltage and the $50\ \mathrm{Hz}$ frequency steady.

(a) 原理与定律 M1·A1

线圈旋转时,交链它的磁通量连续变化,从而感应出电动势。(M1)

这就是法拉第电磁感应定律:电动势等于磁链变化率。(A1)

(b) 角频率与峰值电动势 M1·M1·A1

$\omega = 2\pi f = 2\pi(50) \approx 314\ \mathrm{rad\,s^{-1}}$。(M1)

$\varepsilon_{0} = NBA\omega = (80)(0.15)(0.020)(314)$。(M1)

$$ \varepsilon_{0} = 0.24 \times 314 \approx 75.4\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(c) 电动势函数与有效值 A1·M1·A1

$t = 0$ 时线圈正对,磁通量为余弦、电动势为正弦:$\varepsilon = 75.4\sin(314\,t)\ \mathrm{V}$。(A1)

正弦量的有效值为峰值除以 $\sqrt{2}$:$\varepsilon_{\text{rms}} = \varepsilon_{0}/\sqrt{2} = 75.4/\sqrt{2}$。(M1)

$$ \varepsilon_{\text{rms}} \approx 53.3\ \mathrm{V}. $$

(A1)

(d) 频率加倍 A1·R1

输出频率加倍,因为它等于旋转频率。(A1)

峰值电动势也加倍,因为 $\varepsilon_{0} = NBA\omega \propto \omega \propto f$;$\omega$ 加倍使 $\varepsilon_{0}$ 加倍。(R1)

(e) 峰值电动势时线圈位置 M1·A1

电动势在磁通量变化最快时最大,即磁通量过零时。这发生在线圈平面平行于场(法线成 $90^{\circ}$)时。(M1)

此刻 $\Phi = 0$ 但 $|\mathrm{d}\Phi/\mathrm{d}t|$ 最大,故 $|\varepsilon|$ 最大。(A1)

要点。阅卷者常考的反直觉结论是:电动势在磁通量为零处取峰值,而非最大处,因为电动势跟随变化率。联系峰值与有效值的 $\sqrt{2}$ 值得双向记牢($\varepsilon_{\text{rms}} = \varepsilon_0/\sqrt{2}$、$\varepsilon_0 = \sqrt{2}\,\varepsilon_{\text{rms}}$);市电总以有效值标注。最后,由于 $\varepsilon_0 \propto \omega$,真实发电机必须以严格受控的转速运转,才能同时稳住市电电压与 $50\ \mathrm{Hz}$ 频率。
Q9HARDPaper 2HL ONLYrod on rails, Lenz, energy balance导轨上的棒、楞次定律与能量平衡[10 marks]

Rod $L = 0.25\ \mathrm{m}$ on rails closed by $R = 0.20\ \Omega$; $B = 0.50\ \mathrm{T}$ vertical; pushed at constant $v = 4.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$. (a) emf and current; (b) magnetic force and its direction by Lenz; (c) mechanical power needed; (d) show mechanical power $=$ electrical power and why.棒 $L = 0.25\ \mathrm{m}$,导轨由 $R = 0.20\ \Omega$ 闭合;$B = 0.50\ \mathrm{T}$ 竖直;以恒定 $v = 4.0\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ 推动。(a) 电动势与电流;(b) 磁场力及其楞次方向;(c) 所需机械功率;(d) 证明机械功率 $=$ 电功率及原因。

Answers:答案:  (a) $\varepsilon = 0.50\ \mathrm{V}$, $I = 2.5\ \mathrm{A}$  ·  (b) $F = 0.31\ \mathrm{N}$, opposing the motion  ·  (c) $P_{\text{mech}} = 1.25\ \mathrm{W}$  ·  (d) $P_{\text{mech}} = P_{\text{elec}} = 1.25\ \mathrm{W}$

(a) emf and current M1·A1·A1

$\varepsilon = BvL = (0.50)(4.0)(0.25) = 0.50\ \mathrm{V}$. (M1·A1)

$I = \varepsilon/R = 0.50/0.20 = 2.5\ \mathrm{A}$. (A1)

(b) Magnetic force and direction M1·A1·R1

The current-carrying rod in the field feels a force $F = BIL = (0.50)(2.5)(0.25)$. (M1)

$$ F = 0.3125 \approx 0.31\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

By Lenz's law the induced current opposes the change in flux, so the force on the rod acts opposite to its velocity, that is, it is a retarding force. (R1)

(c) Mechanical power required M1·A1

To keep the rod at constant speed the external force must exactly balance the retarding force, so $F_{\text{ext}} = 0.3125\ \mathrm{N}$ and $P_{\text{mech}} = F_{\text{ext}}\,v = (0.3125)(4.0)$. (M1)

$$ P_{\text{mech}} = 1.25\ \mathrm{W}. $$

(A1)

(d) Power balance A1·R1

The electrical power dissipated is $P_{\text{elec}} = \varepsilon I = (0.50)(2.5) = 1.25\ \mathrm{W}$ (or $I^{2}R = (2.5)^{2}(0.20) = 1.25\ \mathrm{W}$), equal to $P_{\text{mech}}$. (A1)

At constant speed the kinetic energy is unchanged, so by conservation of energy all the mechanical work done against the magnetic force is converted to electrical energy and dissipated as heat in $R$. (R1)

Insight. This problem is the energy accounting behind Lenz's law made quantitative. The retarding force is not a nuisance; it is the mechanism by which mechanical input becomes electrical output, and $Fv = \varepsilon I = I^{2}R$ at constant speed is the bookkeeping. If the induced force aided the motion instead, the rod would accelerate and generate power with no input, the perpetual-motion contradiction. Always check that your computed $Fv$ matches $I^2R$; a mismatch flags a sign or arithmetic error.

(a) 电动势与电流 M1·A1·A1

$\varepsilon = BvL = (0.50)(4.0)(0.25) = 0.50\ \mathrm{V}$。(M1·A1)

$I = \varepsilon/R = 0.50/0.20 = 2.5\ \mathrm{A}$。(A1)

(b) 磁场力与方向 M1·A1·R1

载流棒在场中受力 $F = BIL = (0.50)(2.5)(0.25)$。(M1)

$$ F = 0.3125 \approx 0.31\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

由楞次定律,感应电流反抗磁通量的变化,故棒受的力与其速度反向,即为阻碍力。(R1)

(c) 所需机械功率 M1·A1

要使棒匀速,外力须恰好平衡阻碍力,故 $F_{\text{ext}} = 0.3125\ \mathrm{N}$,$P_{\text{mech}} = F_{\text{ext}}\,v = (0.3125)(4.0)$。(M1)

$$ P_{\text{mech}} = 1.25\ \mathrm{W}. $$

(A1)

(d) 功率平衡 A1·R1

耗散的电功率为 $P_{\text{elec}} = \varepsilon I = (0.50)(2.5) = 1.25\ \mathrm{W}$(或 $I^{2}R = (2.5)^{2}(0.20) = 1.25\ \mathrm{W}$),与 $P_{\text{mech}}$ 相等。(A1)

匀速时动能不变,故由能量守恒,克服磁场力所做的全部机械功都转化为电能,并在 $R$ 中以热耗散。(R1)

要点。此题把楞次定律背后的能量核算定量化。阻碍力并非麻烦,而是机械输入变为电学输出的机制,匀速时 $Fv = \varepsilon I = I^{2}R$ 就是这本账。若感应力反而助长运动,棒会在无输入下加速并发电,即永动机矛盾。务必核对所算 $Fv$ 与 $I^2R$ 是否相符;不符则提示符号或算术错误。
Q10HARDPaper 2HL ONLYpower transmission + eddy currents输电与涡流[8 marks]

Generator: $20\ \mathrm{kW}$ at $250\ \mathrm{V}$ AC, sent through a cable $R = 4.0\ \Omega$; ideal step-up transformer raises the voltage to $10\,000\ \mathrm{V}$. (a) turns ratio $N_s : N_p$; (b) cable current and power lost at $10\,000\ \mathrm{V}$; (c) why a transformer needs AC and why the core is laminated.发电机:$250\ \mathrm{V}$ 交流、$20\ \mathrm{kW}$,经 $R = 4.0\ \Omega$ 输电线输送;理想升压变压器把电压升到 $10\,000\ \mathrm{V}$。(a) 匝数比 $N_s : N_p$;(b) $10\,000\ \mathrm{V}$ 下线电流与损耗;(c) 变压器为何需交流、铁芯为何叠片。

Answers:答案:  (a) $N_s : N_p = 40 : 1$  ·  (b) $I = 2.0\ \mathrm{A}$, $P_{\text{loss}} = 16\ \mathrm{W}$  ·  (c) AC gives changing flux; lamination cuts eddy-current loss

(a) Turns ratio M1·A1

For an ideal transformer the turns ratio equals the voltage ratio: $\dfrac{N_s}{N_p} = \dfrac{V_s}{V_p} = \dfrac{10\,000}{250}$. (M1)

$$ \frac{N_s}{N_p} = 40, \quad \text{so } N_s : N_p = 40 : 1. $$

(A1)

(b) Cable current and power lost M1·M1·A1

At the transmission voltage, $I = P/V = 20\,000/10\,000 = 2.0\ \mathrm{A}$. (M1)

Power lost in the cable is $P_{\text{loss}} = I^{2}R = (2.0)^{2}(4.0)$. (M1)

$$ P_{\text{loss}} = 4.0 \times 4.0 = 16\ \mathrm{W}. $$

(A1)

(c) AC requirement and lamination R1·R1·B1

A transformer relies on a changing flux to induce an emf in the secondary. AC continuously changes the flux in the core; a steady DC would give constant flux and no induced emf. (R1·R1)

The changing flux also induces eddy currents in the core, which waste energy as heat. Laminating the core (thin insulated sheets) breaks the eddy-current loops into small high-resistance paths, reducing this loss. (B1)

Insight. Had the $20\ \mathrm{kW}$ been sent at the generator's $250\ \mathrm{V}$, the current would be $80\ \mathrm{A}$ and the loss $I^2R = 80^2 \times 4.0 = 25\,600\ \mathrm{W}$, more than the power itself, so transmission would be impossible. Stepping up by $40$ cuts the loss by $40^2 = 1600$, from $25.6\ \mathrm{kW}$ to $16\ \mathrm{W}$. Keep the two loss mechanisms distinct: $I^2R$ heating in the transmission cable is reduced by raising the voltage, whereas eddy-current heating inside the transformer core is reduced by laminating it.

(a) 匝数比 M1·A1

理想变压器匝数比等于电压比:$\dfrac{N_s}{N_p} = \dfrac{V_s}{V_p} = \dfrac{10\,000}{250}$。(M1)

$$ \frac{N_s}{N_p} = 40, \quad \text{即 } N_s : N_p = 40 : 1. $$

(A1)

(b) 线电流与损耗功率 M1·M1·A1

在输电电压下,$I = P/V = 20\,000/10\,000 = 2.0\ \mathrm{A}$。(M1)

线中损耗功率 $P_{\text{loss}} = I^{2}R = (2.0)^{2}(4.0)$。(M1)

$$ P_{\text{loss}} = 4.0 \times 4.0 = 16\ \mathrm{W}. $$

(A1)

(c) 交流要求与叠片 R1·R1·B1

变压器依赖变化的磁通量在次级感应电动势。交流使铁芯中的磁通量持续变化;恒定直流给出恒定磁通量,不产生感应电动势。(R1·R1)

变化的磁通量还会在铁芯中感应出涡流,以热的形式浪费能量。把铁芯叠片(薄绝缘片)将涡流回路分割成小的高阻路径,减小此损耗。(B1)

要点。若这 $20\ \mathrm{kW}$ 以发电机的 $250\ \mathrm{V}$ 输送,电流将为 $80\ \mathrm{A}$、损耗 $I^2R = 80^2 \times 4.0 = 25\,600\ \mathrm{W}$,超过功率本身,故无法输电。升压 $40$ 倍使损耗降为 $40^2 = 1600$ 分之一,由 $25.6\ \mathrm{kW}$ 降到 $16\ \mathrm{W}$。把两种损耗机制分清:输电线中的 $I^2R$ 发热靠升压减小,而变压器铁芯内的涡流发热靠叠片减小。