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Unit D3 · SolutionsUnit D3 · 解析

Motion in Electromagnetic Fields · Solutions电磁场中的运动 · 解析

Companion to the IB-Style Practice SetIB 风格练习题的解析配套

MEDIUM HARD Paper 1 Paper 1B Paper 2 HL ONLY

Syllabus D3.1 to D3.6考纲 D3.1 至 D3.6PHYSICS HL



PART I  ·  PAPER 1 STYLE第一部分  ·  第一卷风格Short structured · 30 marks短结构题 · 30 分

Worked Solutions详细解析

Q1MEDIUMPaper 1force on a wire $F=BIL\sin\theta$载流导线受力 $F=BIL\sin\theta$[4 marks]

Wire $L = 0.20\ \mathrm{m}$, $I = 4.0\ \mathrm{A}$ east, $B = 0.35\ \mathrm{T}$ up, perpendicular. (a) magnitude of force; (b) direction; (c) effect of making the wire parallel to the field.导线 $L = 0.20\ \mathrm{m}$,$I = 4.0\ \mathrm{A}$ 向东,$B = 0.35\ \mathrm{T}$ 向上,互相垂直。(a) 力的大小;(b) 方向;(c) 把导线转为平行于磁场的影响。

Answers:答案:  (a) $F = 0.28\ \mathrm{N}$  ·  (b) horizontally to the north  ·  (c) force becomes zero

(a) Magnitude of the force M1·A1

The wire is perpendicular to the field, so $\theta = 90^{\circ}$ and $\sin\theta = 1$. Use $F = BIL\sin\theta$: (M1)

$$ F = (0.35)(4.0)(0.20)(1) = 0.28\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(b) Direction A1

Fleming's left-hand rule: first finger along $\vec{B}$ (up), second finger along the conventional current (east), thumb gives the force pointing horizontally to the north. (A1)

(c) Wire parallel to the field B1

If the wire lies parallel to $\vec{B}$ then $\theta = 0^{\circ}$, so $\sin\theta = 0$ and $F = BIL\sin\theta = 0$: the force becomes zero. (B1)

Insight. Every wire-force question splits into two independent marks: magnitude from $F = BIL\sin\theta$ and direction from Fleming's left-hand rule. The single most common slip is dropping the $\sin\theta$ factor, which only equals one when the wire is perpendicular to the field. Keep the three left-hand fingers mutually perpendicular and always point the second finger along conventional (positive) current, not electron flow.

(a) 力的大小 M1·A1

导线垂直于磁场,故 $\theta = 90^{\circ}$、$\sin\theta = 1$。用 $F = BIL\sin\theta$:(M1)

$$ F = (0.35)(4.0)(0.20)(1) = 0.28\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(b) 方向 A1

弗莱明左手定则:食指沿 $\vec{B}$(向上),中指沿常规电流(向东),拇指给出力水平指向北方。(A1)

(c) 导线平行于磁场 B1

若导线平行于 $\vec{B}$,则 $\theta = 0^{\circ}$,$\sin\theta = 0$,故 $F = BIL\sin\theta = 0$:力变为零。(B1)

要点。每道导线受力题都拆成两个独立得分点:由 $F = BIL\sin\theta$ 求大小,由弗莱明左手定则定方向。最常见的失误是漏掉 $\sin\theta$ 因子,它只在导线垂直于磁场时等于 1。保持左手三指两两垂直,中指永远沿常规(正)电流方向,而非电子流向。
Q2MEDIUMPaper 1force on a moving charge (Lorentz)运动电荷受力(洛伦兹力)[6 marks]

Proton $+e$ moves east at $3.0\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ through $B = 0.25\ \mathrm{T}$ up, perpendicular. (a) force magnitude; (b) direction; (c) compare with an electron at the same velocity.质子 $+e$ 以 $3.0\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ 向东穿过向上的 $B = 0.25\ \mathrm{T}$,互相垂直。(a) 力的大小;(b) 方向;(c) 与同速电子比较。

Answers:答案:  (a) $F = 1.2\times10^{-13}\ \mathrm{N}$  ·  (b) horizontally to the south  ·  (c) same magnitude, opposite direction (to the north)

(a) Magnitude of the force M1·A1

Velocity is perpendicular to the field, so $\theta = 90^{\circ}$. Use $F = qvB\sin\theta$ with $q = e$: (M1)

$$ F = (1.60\times10^{-19})(3.0\times10^{6})(0.25) = 1.2\times10^{-13}\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(b) Direction M1·A1

For the positive proton, the conventional current is along $\vec{v}$ (east). Fleming's left-hand rule: field up, current east, so the thumb (force) points horizontally to the south. (M1·A1)

(c) Electron at the same velocity A1·R1

The electron has the same charge magnitude, so $F = qvB$ gives the same size, $1.2\times10^{-13}\ \mathrm{N}$. (A1)

Because the electron is negative, its conventional current points opposite to $\vec{v}$, so the force reverses: it points horizontally to the north. (R1)

Insight. The sign of the charge flips the direction but never the magnitude, because $F = qvB$ depends only on the size of $q$. The reliable routine for a negative charge is to apply Fleming's left-hand rule as if the current ran along $\vec{v}$, then reverse the final answer. Note too that a magnetic force is always perpendicular to $\vec{v}$, so it does no work and cannot change the particle's speed.

(a) 力的大小 M1·A1

速度垂直于磁场,故 $\theta = 90^{\circ}$。用 $F = qvB\sin\theta$,$q = e$:(M1)

$$ F = (1.60\times10^{-19})(3.0\times10^{6})(0.25) = 1.2\times10^{-13}\ \mathrm{N}. $$

(A1)

(b) 方向 M1·A1

对正质子,常规电流沿 $\vec{v}$(向东)。弗莱明左手定则:磁场向上、电流向东,故拇指(力)水平指向南方。(M1·A1)

(c) 同速电子 A1·R1

电子电荷大小相同,故 $F = qvB$ 给出相同大小 $1.2\times10^{-13}\ \mathrm{N}$。(A1)

因电子带负电,其常规电流方向与 $\vec{v}$ 相反,故力方向反转:水平指向北方。(R1)

要点。电荷符号只改变方向,绝不改变大小,因为 $F = qvB$ 只取决于 $q$ 的大小。处理负电荷的可靠流程是:先把电流当作沿 $\vec{v}$ 用左手定则,再把最终结果反向。还要注意:磁力始终垂直于 $\vec{v}$,故不做功,也无法改变粒子速率。
Q3HARDPaper 1circular motion $r=mv/qB$, period圆周运动 $r=mv/qB$ 与周期[6 marks]

Proton ($m = 1.67\times10^{-27}\ \mathrm{kg}$, $+e$), $v = 4.0\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$, $B = 0.50\ \mathrm{T}$, perpendicular. (a) why circular + radius; (b) period; (c) effect of doubling the speed on the period.质子($m = 1.67\times10^{-27}\ \mathrm{kg}$,$+e$),$v = 4.0\times10^{6}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$,$B = 0.50\ \mathrm{T}$,垂直。(a) 为何为圆 + 半径;(b) 周期;(c) 速率加倍对周期的影响。

Answers:答案:  (a) $r \approx 0.084\ \mathrm{m}$  ·  (b) $T \approx 1.3\times10^{-7}\ \mathrm{s}$  ·  (c) period unchanged

(a) Why a circle, and the radius R1·M1·A1

The magnetic force $qvB$ stays perpendicular to $\vec{v}$ and is constant in size (the speed is constant), which is exactly the condition for uniform circular motion. (R1)

Set the magnetic force equal to the centripetal force, $qvB = mv^{2}/r$, so $r = mv/(qB)$: (M1)

$$ r = \frac{(1.67\times10^{-27})(4.0\times10^{6})}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.50)} \approx 0.084\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

(b) Period M1·A1

Use $T = 2\pi m/(qB)$: (M1)

$$ T = \frac{2\pi (1.67\times10^{-27})}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.50)} \approx 1.3\times10^{-7}\ \mathrm{s}. $$

(A1)

(c) Doubling the speed B1

$T = 2\pi m/(qB)$ contains no $v$, so the period is unchanged; only the radius would double. (B1)

Insight. The speed-independence of the period is the conceptual payload of this topic. A faster proton traces a proportionally larger circle, so it covers more circumference at a higher speed and the time per loop cancels out exactly. This is precisely why a cyclotron can drive every orbit with one fixed accelerating frequency. The radius, by contrast, scales directly with momentum $mv$.

(a) 为何为圆,及半径 R1·M1·A1

磁力 $qvB$ 始终垂直于 $\vec{v}$ 且大小恒定(速率不变),这正是匀速圆周运动的条件。(R1)

令磁力等于向心力 $qvB = mv^{2}/r$,得 $r = mv/(qB)$:(M1)

$$ r = \frac{(1.67\times10^{-27})(4.0\times10^{6})}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.50)} \approx 0.084\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

(b) 周期 M1·A1

用 $T = 2\pi m/(qB)$:(M1)

$$ T = \frac{2\pi (1.67\times10^{-27})}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.50)} \approx 1.3\times10^{-7}\ \mathrm{s}. $$

(A1)

(c) 速率加倍 B1

$T = 2\pi m/(qB)$ 不含 $v$,故周期不变;只有半径会加倍。(B1)

要点。周期与速率无关是本专题的核心。更快的质子描出按比例更大的圆,于是以更高速率走更长的周长,每圈用时恰好抵消。这正是回旋加速器能用单一固定加速频率驱动每个轨道的原因。相比之下,半径与动量 $mv$ 成正比。
Q4HARDPaper 1charge in an electric field $F=qE$, $W=qV$电场中的电荷 $F=qE$、$W=qV$[6 marks]

Electron ($m = 9.11\times10^{-31}\ \mathrm{kg}$, $-e$) accelerated from rest through $V = 800\ \mathrm{V}$, plates $0.040\ \mathrm{m}$ apart. (a) field strength; (b) kinetic energy gained; (c) final speed.电子($m = 9.11\times10^{-31}\ \mathrm{kg}$,$-e$)从静止经 $V = 800\ \mathrm{V}$ 加速,板距 $0.040\ \mathrm{m}$。(a) 场强;(b) 获得的动能;(c) 末速率。

Answers:答案:  (a) $E = 2.0\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}$  ·  (b) $E_k = 1.28\times10^{-16}\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (c) $v \approx 1.7\times10^{7}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$

(a) Electric field strength M1·A1

For a uniform field between parallel plates, $E = V/d$: (M1)

$$ E = \frac{800}{0.040} = 2.0\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(b) Kinetic energy gained M1·A1

The work done by the field on the charge becomes kinetic energy: $E_k = qV$ with $q = e$. (M1)

$$ E_k = (1.60\times10^{-19})(800) = 1.28\times10^{-16}\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) Final speed M1·A1

From $E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$, $v = \sqrt{2E_k/m}$: (M1)

$$ v = \sqrt{\frac{2(1.28\times10^{-16})}{9.11\times10^{-31}}} \approx 1.7\times10^{7}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

Insight. The energy route $qV = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$ goes straight from the potential difference to the speed without ever needing the field, the plate spacing, or the time. Reach for $E = V/d$ only when the question asks for the field or for a force inside the plates. Note the contrast with a magnetic field: here the electric field does work and raises kinetic energy, whereas a magnetic field never changes speed.

(a) 电场强度 M1·A1

平行板间匀强场满足 $E = V/d$:(M1)

$$ E = \frac{800}{0.040} = 2.0\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(b) 获得的动能 M1·A1

电场对电荷做的功转为动能:$E_k = qV$,$q = e$。(M1)

$$ E_k = (1.60\times10^{-19})(800) = 1.28\times10^{-16}\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(c) 末速率 M1·A1

由 $E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$,$v = \sqrt{2E_k/m}$:(M1)

$$ v = \sqrt{\frac{2(1.28\times10^{-16})}{9.11\times10^{-31}}} \approx 1.7\times10^{7}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

要点。能量路径 $qV = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$ 直接从电势差求出速率,完全不需要场强、板距或时间。只有当题目要场强或板内受力时才用 $E = V/d$。注意与磁场的对比:这里电场做功并提高动能,而磁场永不改变速率。
Q5HARDPaper 1HL ONLYparallel wires $F/L=\mu_0 I_1 I_2/2\pi r$平行导线 $F/L=\mu_0 I_1 I_2/2\pi r$[8 marks]

Two parallel wires $0.050\ \mathrm{m}$ apart carry $8.0\ \mathrm{A}$ and $12\ \mathrm{A}$ in the same direction. (a) $B$ from the $8.0\ \mathrm{A}$ wire at the other; (b) force per unit length; (c) attract or repel with reason; (d) effect of doubling the separation.两条相距 $0.050\ \mathrm{m}$ 的平行导线同向载流 $8.0\ \mathrm{A}$ 与 $12\ \mathrm{A}$。(a) $8.0\ \mathrm{A}$ 导线在另一根处的 $B$;(b) 单位长度的力;(c) 相吸还是相斥及理由;(d) 间距加倍的影响。

Answers:答案:  (a) $B = 3.2\times10^{-5}\ \mathrm{T}$  ·  (b) $F/L = 3.8\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}$  ·  (c) attract  ·  (d) halved

(a) Field of one wire at the other M1·A1

A long straight wire produces $B = \mu_0 I_1/(2\pi r)$ at distance $r$: (M1)

$$ B = \frac{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(8.0)}{2\pi (0.050)} = \frac{(2\times10^{-7})(8.0)}{0.050} = 3.2\times10^{-5}\ \mathrm{T}. $$

(A1)

(b) Force per unit length M1·M1·A1

The second wire (current $I_2$) feels a motor-effect force in this field, $F/L = BI_2 = \mu_0 I_1 I_2/(2\pi r)$. (M1)

$$ \frac{F}{L} = \frac{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(8.0)(12)}{2\pi (0.050)} = \frac{(2\times10^{-7})(96)}{0.050}. $$

(M1 for substitution)

$$ \frac{F}{L} = 3.8\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(c) Attract or repel A1·R1

Same-direction currents attract. (A1)

Each wire sits in the field of the other; applying Fleming's left-hand rule to either wire gives a force pointing toward the other wire, so the pair is pulled together. (R1)

(d) Doubling the separation B1

$F/L \propto 1/r$, so doubling $r$ halves the force per unit length. (B1)

Insight. The clean way to see this force is in two steps: wire 1 makes a field $B = \mu_0 I_1/(2\pi r)$, and wire 2 then feels the ordinary motor-effect force $F = BI_2 L$ in that field. Multiplying gives $F/L = \mu_0 I_1 I_2/(2\pi r)$, with the handy shortcut $\mu_0/(2\pi) = 2\times10^{-7}$. The direction rule (same way attract, opposite repel) is the historical basis of the definition of the ampere.

(a) 一根导线在另一根处的磁场 M1·A1

长直导线在距离 $r$ 处产生 $B = \mu_0 I_1/(2\pi r)$:(M1)

$$ B = \frac{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(8.0)}{2\pi (0.050)} = \frac{(2\times10^{-7})(8.0)}{0.050} = 3.2\times10^{-5}\ \mathrm{T}. $$

(A1)

(b) 单位长度的力 M1·M1·A1

第二根导线(电流 $I_2$)在此磁场中受电动机效应力,$F/L = BI_2 = \mu_0 I_1 I_2/(2\pi r)$。(M1)

$$ \frac{F}{L} = \frac{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(8.0)(12)}{2\pi (0.050)} = \frac{(2\times10^{-7})(96)}{0.050}. $$

(代入得 M1)

$$ \frac{F}{L} = 3.8\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(c) 相吸还是相斥 A1·R1

同向电流相吸。(A1)

每根导线都处在另一根的磁场中;对任一根用弗莱明左手定则,力都指向对方导线,故两线被拉拢。(R1)

(d) 间距加倍 B1

$F/L \propto 1/r$,故 $r$ 加倍则单位长度的力减半。(B1)

要点。理解这个力最干净的办法是两步:导线 1 产生磁场 $B = \mu_0 I_1/(2\pi r)$,导线 2 在该场中受普通电动机效应力 $F = BI_2 L$。相乘即得 $F/L = \mu_0 I_1 I_2/(2\pi r)$,速算 $\mu_0/(2\pi) = 2\times10^{-7}$ 很好用。方向规则(同向相吸、反向相斥)是历史上定义安培的依据。
PART II  ·  PAPER 1B / DATA ANALYSIS第二部分  ·  第一卷 B / 数据分析Graphs · data · uncertainties · 22 marks图像 · 数据 · 不确定度 · 22 分

Worked Solutions详细解析

Q6HARDPaper 1Bradius vs momentum linear graph半径对动量的线性图[10 marks]

Singly charged ions ($+e$) in a uniform $B$; $r$ tabulated against $p = mv$. (a) show $r$ vs $p$ is linear through the origin and state the gradient; (b) gradient; (c) determine $B$; (d) percentage uncertainty in $r$ at $p = 32.0\times10^{-22}$.单位正电荷离子($+e$)在匀强 $B$ 中;$r$ 对 $p = mv$ 列表。(a) 证明 $r$ 对 $p$ 为过原点直线并说明斜率;(b) 斜率;(c) 求 $B$;(d) $p = 32.0\times10^{-22}$ 处 $r$ 的百分比不确定度。

Answers:答案:  (a) $r = \dfrac{1}{qB}\,p$, gradient $= \dfrac{1}{qB}$  ·  (b) gradient $= 1.25\times10^{19}\ \mathrm{m\,(kg\,m\,s^{-1})^{-1}}$  ·  (c) $B = 0.50\ \mathrm{T}$  ·  (d) $\approx 2.5\%$

(a) Why $r$ vs $p$ is linear through the origin M1·A1·A1

Start from $r = mv/(qB)$ and recognise that $mv = p$: (M1)

$$ r = \frac{p}{qB} = \left(\frac{1}{qB}\right) p. $$

This has the form $r = (\text{gradient})\times p$ with no intercept, so a plot of $r$ against $p$ is a straight line through the origin. (A1)

Comparing with $y = mx$, the gradient is $1/(qB)$. (A1)

(b) Gradient of the line M1·A1

Use two well-separated points, $(8.0\times10^{-22},\,0.010)$ and $(32.0\times10^{-22},\,0.040)$ in SI units: (M1)

$$ \text{gradient} = \frac{0.040 - 0.010}{(32.0 - 8.0)\times10^{-22}} = \frac{0.030}{24.0\times10^{-22}} = 1.25\times10^{19}. $$

(A1)

(c) Magnetic flux density M1·M1·A1

The gradient equals $1/(qB)$, so $B = 1/(q\times\text{gradient})$ with $q = e$: (M1)

$$ B = \frac{1}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(1.25\times10^{19})}. $$

(M1 for substitution)

$$ B = \frac{1}{2.0} = 0.50\ \mathrm{T}. $$

(A1)

(d) Percentage uncertainty at $p = 32.0\times10^{-22}$ M1·A1

At that point $r = 4.0\ \mathrm{cm}$ with absolute uncertainty $\pm 0.1\ \mathrm{cm}$: (M1)

$$ \frac{0.1}{4.0}\times100\% = 2.5\%. $$

(A1)

Insight. Linearising is the central data skill: rearrange $r = mv/(qB)$ so the unknown $B$ sits inside the gradient of a straight line, then read the gradient from widely spaced points rather than from a single pair divided out. The percentage uncertainty in $r$ is largest for the smallest radius, so the inner data points limit the precision; collecting larger-radius arcs tightens the measurement of $B$.

(a) 为何 $r$ 对 $p$ 为过原点直线 M1·A1·A1

从 $r = mv/(qB)$ 出发,认出 $mv = p$:(M1)

$$ r = \frac{p}{qB} = \left(\frac{1}{qB}\right) p. $$

此式形如 $r = (\text{斜率})\times p$,无截距,故 $r$ 对 $p$ 作图为过原点的直线。(A1)

与 $y = mx$ 比较,斜率为 $1/(qB)$。(A1)

(b) 直线的斜率 M1·A1

用相距较远的两点 $(8.0\times10^{-22},\,0.010)$ 与 $(32.0\times10^{-22},\,0.040)$(SI 单位):(M1)

$$ \text{斜率} = \frac{0.040 - 0.010}{(32.0 - 8.0)\times10^{-22}} = \frac{0.030}{24.0\times10^{-22}} = 1.25\times10^{19}. $$

(A1)

(c) 磁感应强度 M1·M1·A1

斜率等于 $1/(qB)$,故 $B = 1/(q\times\text{斜率})$,$q = e$:(M1)

$$ B = \frac{1}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(1.25\times10^{19})}. $$

(代入得 M1)

$$ B = \frac{1}{2.0} = 0.50\ \mathrm{T}. $$

(A1)

(d) $p = 32.0\times10^{-22}$ 处的百分比不确定度 M1·A1

该点 $r = 4.0\ \mathrm{cm}$,绝对不确定度 $\pm 0.1\ \mathrm{cm}$:(M1)

$$ \frac{0.1}{4.0}\times100\% = 2.5\%. $$

(A1)

要点。线性化是数据分析的核心:把 $r = mv/(qB)$ 重排,使未知量 $B$ 落入直线斜率,再从相距较远的点读斜率,而非用单点相除。半径越小,$r$ 的百分比不确定度越大,故内侧数据点限制了精度;采集更大半径的圆弧能收紧对 $B$ 的测量。
Q7HARDPaper 1Bvelocity selector balance + uncertainty速度选择器平衡与不确定度[12 marks]

Velocity selector, crossed $\vec{E}$ and $\vec{B}$; $E = (2.4\pm0.1)\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}$, $B = 0.30\pm0.01\ \mathrm{T}$. (a) show $v = E/B$ and why it is charge/mass independent; (b) selected speed; (c) percentage and absolute uncertainty in $v$; (d) deflection direction for a faster particle.速度选择器,正交 $\vec{E}$ 与 $\vec{B}$;$E = (2.4\pm0.1)\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}$,$B = 0.30\pm0.01\ \mathrm{T}$。(a) 证明 $v = E/B$ 及其与电荷、质量无关;(b) 被选速率;(c) $v$ 的百分比与绝对不确定度;(d) 更快粒子的偏转方向。

Answers:答案:  (a) $qE = qvB \Rightarrow v = E/B$  ·  (b) $v = 8.0\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$  ·  (c) $7.5\%$, $v = (8.0\pm0.6)\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$  ·  (d) toward the magnetic-force side

(a) Why $v = E/B$ M1·A1·R1

The electric force $F_E = qE$ and the magnetic force $F_B = qvB$ act in opposite directions. For no deflection the resultant is zero, so the forces balance: $qE = qvB$. (M1)

The charge $q$ cancels, leaving $v = E/B$. (A1)

Because $q$ has cancelled and no mass ever entered, the selected speed depends only on the field ratio, not on the charge or mass of the particle. (R1)

(b) Selected speed M1·A1

Substitute into $v = E/B$: (M1)

$$ v = \frac{2.4\times10^{4}}{0.30} = 8.0\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(c) Uncertainty in $v$ M1·M1·A1·A1

For a quotient, percentage uncertainties add: (M1)

$$ \frac{\Delta v}{v} = \frac{\Delta E}{E} + \frac{\Delta B}{B} = \frac{0.1}{2.4} + \frac{0.01}{0.30}. $$ $$ \frac{\Delta v}{v} = 4.2\% + 3.3\% = 7.5\%. $$

(M1·A1)

So $\Delta v = 0.075\times(8.0\times10^{4}) = 0.6\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$, giving $v = (8.0\pm0.6)\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$. (A1)

(d) A faster particle M1·A1·R1

The electric force $qE$ is independent of speed, but the magnetic force $qvB$ grows with $v$. (M1)

For a particle faster than the selected speed, $qvB > qE$, so the magnetic force wins. (A1)

The particle is therefore deflected toward the side on which the magnetic force acts. (R1)

Insight. The cancellation of $q$ is the whole point of a velocity selector: it transmits one speed regardless of charge or mass, which is exactly what a mass spectrometer needs before it sorts ions by radius. For the uncertainty, remember that for products and quotients the percentage uncertainties add (never the absolute ones), and the final value is rounded so its last digit matches the one-significant-figure uncertainty.

(a) 为何 $v = E/B$ M1·A1·R1

电场力 $F_E = qE$ 与磁场力 $F_B = qvB$ 方向相反。不偏转时合力为零,故两力平衡:$qE = qvB$。(M1)

电荷 $q$ 被消去,得 $v = E/B$。(A1)

由于 $q$ 已消去且质量从未进入,被选速率仅取决于场强之比,与粒子的电荷或质量无关。(R1)

(b) 被选速率 M1·A1

代入 $v = E/B$:(M1)

$$ v = \frac{2.4\times10^{4}}{0.30} = 8.0\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(c) $v$ 的不确定度 M1·M1·A1·A1

对于商,百分比不确定度相加:(M1)

$$ \frac{\Delta v}{v} = \frac{\Delta E}{E} + \frac{\Delta B}{B} = \frac{0.1}{2.4} + \frac{0.01}{0.30}. $$ $$ \frac{\Delta v}{v} = 4.2\% + 3.3\% = 7.5\%. $$

(M1·A1)

故 $\Delta v = 0.075\times(8.0\times10^{4}) = 0.6\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$,即 $v = (8.0\pm0.6)\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$。(A1)

(d) 更快的粒子 M1·A1·R1

电场力 $qE$ 与速率无关,但磁场力 $qvB$ 随 $v$ 增大。(M1)

对比被选速率更快的粒子,$qvB > qE$,磁力占优。(A1)

因此粒子向磁场力作用的一侧偏转。(R1)

要点。$q$ 的消去正是速度选择器的精髓:它无论电荷或质量都只放行一个速率,这正是质谱仪按半径分离离子前所需。对于不确定度,记住乘除时百分比不确定度相加(绝不加绝对值),并把最终值取舍到末位与 1 位有效数字的不确定度对齐。
PART III  ·  PAPER 2 STYLE第三部分  ·  第二卷风格Extended structured · 30 marks长结构题 · 30 分

Worked Solutions详细解析

Q8HARDPaper 2mass spectrometer (selector + $r=mv/qB$)质谱仪(选择器 + $r=mv/qB$)[12 marks]

Mass spectrometer; selector $E = 3.0\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}$, $B = 0.20\ \mathrm{T}$; analyser $B' = 0.50\ \mathrm{T}$; ions $+e$; $1\ \mathrm{u} = 1.66\times10^{-27}\ \mathrm{kg}$. (a) selected speed; (b) purpose of the selector; (c) radius for neon-20; (d) detector separation neon-20 vs neon-22; (e) effect of increasing $B'$.质谱仪;选择器 $E = 3.0\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}$、$B = 0.20\ \mathrm{T}$;分析器 $B' = 0.50\ \mathrm{T}$;离子 $+e$;$1\ \mathrm{u} = 1.66\times10^{-27}\ \mathrm{kg}$。(a) 被选速率;(b) 选择器作用;(c) 氖-20 半径;(d) 氖-20 与氖-22 探测器分离;(e) $B'$ 增大的影响。

Answers:答案:  (a) $v = 1.5\times10^{5}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$  ·  (c) $r_{20} \approx 0.062\ \mathrm{m}$  ·  (d) $\approx 0.012\ \mathrm{m}$  ·  (e) separation decreases

(a) Selected speed M1·A1

The velocity selector passes only $v = E/B$: (M1)

$$ v = \frac{3.0\times10^{4}}{0.20} = 1.5\times10^{5}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(b) Purpose of the selector B1·R1

It transmits only ions with one definite speed $v = E/B$, regardless of their charge or mass. (B1)

This guarantees every ion entering the analyser has the same known $v$, so the later radius $r = mv/(qB')$ depends only on mass; without it, ions of different speeds of the same mass would land at different radii and blur the result. (R1)

(c) Radius for neon-20 M1·M1·A1

Mass $m = 20\times(1.66\times10^{-27}) = 3.32\times10^{-26}\ \mathrm{kg}$. (M1)

Use $r = mv/(qB')$: (M1)

$$ r_{20} = \frac{(3.32\times10^{-26})(1.5\times10^{5})}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.50)} \approx 0.062\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

(d) Separation of the two isotopes M1·M1·A1

For neon-22, $m = 22\times(1.66\times10^{-27})$, giving $r_{22} \approx 0.0685\ \mathrm{m}$ from the same formula. (M1)

Each ion completes a semicircle, so the detector spot lies a diameter $2r$ from the entry slit. The separation of the two spots is the difference of diameters: (M1)

$$ \Delta x = 2(r_{22} - r_{20}) = 2(0.0685 - 0.0623) \approx 0.012\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

(e) Increasing $B'$ A1·R1

Since $r = mv/(qB') \propto 1/B'$, a larger $B'$ shrinks every radius. (A1)

The gap $\Delta x = 2v(m_{22}-m_{20})/(qB')$ also scales as $1/B'$, so increasing $B'$ reduces the separation on the detector. (R1)

Insight. A mass spectrometer chains two D3 results: the selector fixes $v = E/B$ so that, in the analyser, $r = mv/(qB')$ is directly proportional to mass. Two traps recur. First, the spots are separated by the difference of diameters $2(r_{22}-r_{20})$, not radii, because each ion sweeps a half circle. Second, although a stronger $B'$ feels like it should sharpen the instrument, it actually compresses the spacing; resolution comes from the careful difference, not from raw field strength.

(a) 被选速率 M1·A1

速度选择器只放行 $v = E/B$:(M1)

$$ v = \frac{3.0\times10^{4}}{0.20} = 1.5\times10^{5}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(b) 选择器的作用 B1·R1

它只放行速率为定值 $v = E/B$ 的离子,无论其电荷或质量。(B1)

这保证进入分析器的每个离子都有相同的已知 $v$,于是后续半径 $r = mv/(qB')$ 只依赖质量;若无选择器,同质量但不同速率的离子会落在不同半径,使结果模糊。(R1)

(c) 氖-20 的半径 M1·M1·A1

质量 $m = 20\times(1.66\times10^{-27}) = 3.32\times10^{-26}\ \mathrm{kg}$。(M1)

用 $r = mv/(qB')$:(M1)

$$ r_{20} = \frac{(3.32\times10^{-26})(1.5\times10^{5})}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.50)} \approx 0.062\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

(d) 两同位素的分离 M1·M1·A1

对氖-22,$m = 22\times(1.66\times10^{-27})$,由同一公式得 $r_{22} \approx 0.0685\ \mathrm{m}$。(M1)

每个离子走半圆,故探测器落点距入口狭缝为直径 $2r$。两落点的分离为直径之差:(M1)

$$ \Delta x = 2(r_{22} - r_{20}) = 2(0.0685 - 0.0623) \approx 0.012\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

(e) 增大 $B'$ A1·R1

由于 $r = mv/(qB') \propto 1/B'$,更大的 $B'$ 使每个半径减小。(A1)

间隔 $\Delta x = 2v(m_{22}-m_{20})/(qB')$ 同样按 $1/B'$ 变化,故增大 $B'$ 会减小探测器上的分离。(R1)

要点。质谱仪串联两个 D3 结果:选择器固定 $v = E/B$,使分析器中 $r = mv/(qB')$ 与质量成正比。两个陷阱反复出现。其一,两落点的分离是直径之差 $2(r_{22}-r_{20})$,而非半径之差,因为每个离子走半圆。其二,更强的 $B'$ 看似能提高仪器精度,实际上却压缩了间距;分辨率来自仔细取差,而非单纯增大场强。
Q9HARDPaper 2cyclotron motion: radius, energy, period回旋运动:半径、能量、周期[10 marks]

Cyclotron protons ($m = 1.67\times10^{-27}\ \mathrm{kg}$, $+e$), $B = 0.80\ \mathrm{T}$; outer-edge radius $0.30\ \mathrm{m}$. (a) show $v = qBr/m$; (b) speed; (c) kinetic energy; (d) period; (e) why a fixed-frequency voltage works.回旋加速器质子($m = 1.67\times10^{-27}\ \mathrm{kg}$,$+e$),$B = 0.80\ \mathrm{T}$;最外缘半径 $0.30\ \mathrm{m}$。(a) 证明 $v = qBr/m$;(b) 速率;(c) 动能;(d) 周期;(e) 为何固定频率电压有效。

Answers:答案:  (b) $v \approx 2.3\times10^{7}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$  ·  (c) $E_k \approx 4.4\times10^{-13}\ \mathrm{J}$  ·  (d) $T \approx 8.2\times10^{-8}\ \mathrm{s}$  ·  (e) $T$ is independent of speed and radius

(a) Showing $v = qBr/m$ M1·A1

The magnetic force provides the centripetal force, $qvB = mv^{2}/r$. (M1)

Cancel one factor of $v$ and rearrange: $qB = mv/r$, so $v = qBr/m$. (A1)

(b) Speed at the outer edge M1·A1

Substitute the data: (M1)

$$ v = \frac{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.80)(0.30)}{1.67\times10^{-27}} \approx 2.3\times10^{7}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(c) Kinetic energy M1·A1

Use $E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$: (M1)

$$ E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(1.67\times10^{-27})(2.30\times10^{7})^{2} \approx 4.4\times10^{-13}\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(d) Period M1·A1

Use $T = 2\pi m/(qB)$: (M1)

$$ T = \frac{2\pi (1.67\times10^{-27})}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.80)} \approx 8.2\times10^{-8}\ \mathrm{s}. $$

(A1)

(e) Why a fixed frequency works A1·R1

The period $T = 2\pi m/(qB)$ contains no $v$ and no $r$, so it is the same on every loop even as the proton speeds up and spirals outward. (A1)

Therefore the accelerating voltage can be reversed at one fixed frequency $f = 1/T$ and will always be in step with the protons crossing the gap. (R1)

Insight. The cyclotron works because the orbital period is independent of speed: every extra bit of energy enlarges the radius without changing the time per revolution, so a single fixed-frequency oscillator keeps pace. Carry $v$ to extra figures into the kinetic-energy step, since squaring magnifies any early rounding. This speed-independence holds only while the proton stays non-relativistic; near light speed the mass effectively rises and the period drifts, which is the limit real cyclotrons run into.

(a) 证明 $v = qBr/m$ M1·A1

磁力提供向心力,$qvB = mv^{2}/r$。(M1)

约去一个 $v$ 并重排:$qB = mv/r$,故 $v = qBr/m$。(A1)

(b) 最外缘速率 M1·A1

代入数据:(M1)

$$ v = \frac{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.80)(0.30)}{1.67\times10^{-27}} \approx 2.3\times10^{7}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

(c) 动能 M1·A1

用 $E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^{2}$:(M1)

$$ E_k = \tfrac{1}{2}(1.67\times10^{-27})(2.30\times10^{7})^{2} \approx 4.4\times10^{-13}\ \mathrm{J}. $$

(A1)

(d) 周期 M1·A1

用 $T = 2\pi m/(qB)$:(M1)

$$ T = \frac{2\pi (1.67\times10^{-27})}{(1.60\times10^{-19})(0.80)} \approx 8.2\times10^{-8}\ \mathrm{s}. $$

(A1)

(e) 为何固定频率有效 A1·R1

周期 $T = 2\pi m/(qB)$ 不含 $v$ 与 $r$,故即使质子加速并向外螺旋,每圈用时都相同。(A1)

因此加速电压可按单一固定频率 $f = 1/T$ 反向,并始终与穿越缝隙的质子同步。(R1)

要点。回旋加速器成立的关键是轨道周期与速率无关:每增加一点能量都使半径增大而每圈用时不变,故单一固定频率振荡器即可保持同步。把 $v$ 多保留几位再代入动能步骤,因为平方会放大早期取舍误差。此速率无关性仅在质子非相对论时成立;接近光速时质量有效增大、周期漂移,这正是真实回旋加速器遇到的极限。
Q10HARDPaper 2HL ONLYparallel wires + parabolic deflection平行导线 + 抛物线偏转[8 marks]

Part 1: two parallel wires, each $6.0\ \mathrm{A}$ same direction, $0.040\ \mathrm{m}$ apart. Part 2: electron ($m = 9.11\times10^{-31}\ \mathrm{kg}$, $-e$) enters at $2.0\times10^{7}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ between plates $0.080\ \mathrm{m}$ long with $E = 1.2\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}$. (a) force per length and attract/repel; (b) acceleration; (c) deflection and path shape.第一部分:两平行导线各 $6.0\ \mathrm{A}$ 同向,相距 $0.040\ \mathrm{m}$。第二部分:电子($m = 9.11\times10^{-31}\ \mathrm{kg}$,$-e$)以 $2.0\times10^{7}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$ 进入板长 $0.080\ \mathrm{m}$、$E = 1.2\times10^{4}\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}$ 的两板之间。(a) 单位长度的力与相吸/相斥;(b) 加速度;(c) 偏转与轨迹形状。

Answers:答案:  (a) $F/L = 1.8\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}$, attract  ·  (b) $a \approx 2.1\times10^{15}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-2}}$  ·  (c) $y \approx 0.017\ \mathrm{m}$, parabolic

(a) Force per unit length, attract or repel M1·A1·A1

Use $F/L = \mu_0 I_1 I_2/(2\pi r)$ with $I_1 = I_2 = 6.0\ \mathrm{A}$, $r = 0.040\ \mathrm{m}$: (M1)

$$ \frac{F}{L} = \frac{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(6.0)(6.0)}{2\pi (0.040)} = \frac{(2\times10^{-7})(36)}{0.040} = 1.8\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

The currents are in the same direction, so the wires attract. (A1)

(b) Acceleration of the electron M1·A1

The electric force gives $a = qE/m$ with $q = e$: (M1)

$$ a = \frac{(1.60\times10^{-19})(1.2\times10^{4})}{9.11\times10^{-31}} \approx 2.1\times10^{15}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-2}}. $$

(A1)

(c) Deflection and path shape M1·A1·B1

The horizontal motion is uniform, so the time inside the plates is $t = \ell/v_0 = 0.080/(2.0\times10^{7}) = 4.0\times10^{-9}\ \mathrm{s}$. (M1)

The vertical deflection is $y = \tfrac{1}{2}at^{2}$:

$$ y = \tfrac{1}{2}(2.11\times10^{15})(4.0\times10^{-9})^{2} \approx 0.017\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

With uniform velocity across the field and uniform acceleration along it, the path inside the plates is a parabola. (B1)

Insight. This question pairs the two contrasting motions of D3 in one place: parallel currents give a steady magnetic attraction, while a charge crossing an electric field undergoes projectile-style motion with $qE/m$ playing the role of $g$. The clean route to the deflection treats the two directions independently: constant horizontal speed sets the time, then $y = \tfrac{1}{2}at^{2}$ gives the parabolic drop. A magnetic field would instead bend the beam into a circular arc, never a parabola.

(a) 单位长度的力,相吸还是相斥 M1·A1·A1

用 $F/L = \mu_0 I_1 I_2/(2\pi r)$,$I_1 = I_2 = 6.0\ \mathrm{A}$、$r = 0.040\ \mathrm{m}$:(M1)

$$ \frac{F}{L} = \frac{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(6.0)(6.0)}{2\pi (0.040)} = \frac{(2\times10^{-7})(36)}{0.040} = 1.8\times10^{-4}\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}. $$

(A1)

两电流同向,故两导线相吸。(A1)

(b) 电子的加速度 M1·A1

电场力给出 $a = qE/m$,$q = e$:(M1)

$$ a = \frac{(1.60\times10^{-19})(1.2\times10^{4})}{9.11\times10^{-31}} \approx 2.1\times10^{15}\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-2}}. $$

(A1)

(c) 偏转与轨迹形状 M1·A1·B1

水平运动匀速,故板内时间 $t = \ell/v_0 = 0.080/(2.0\times10^{7}) = 4.0\times10^{-9}\ \mathrm{s}$。(M1)

竖直偏转为 $y = \tfrac{1}{2}at^{2}$:

$$ y = \tfrac{1}{2}(2.11\times10^{15})(4.0\times10^{-9})^{2} \approx 0.017\ \mathrm{m}. $$

(A1)

沿垂直方向匀速、沿场方向匀加速,故板内轨迹为抛物线。(B1)

要点。本题把 D3 两类对照运动放在一处:平行电流给出稳定的磁吸引,而电荷穿越电场则做类抛体运动,其中 $qE/m$ 扮演 $g$ 的角色。求偏转最干净的路线是把两个方向分开处理:水平匀速定出时间,再由 $y = \tfrac{1}{2}at^{2}$ 得到抛物线式下落。换成磁场则会把束流弯成圆弧,绝不会是抛物线。